FACULTY OF EDUCATION 100 LEVEL
BED 113
FBQ1:
The skills that teach you how to write mechanically is known as
------------skill?
Answer:
Mental
FBQ2:
"Highly needed courses are available in Business Education
Curriculum". This implied there is
---------- in Business Education Curriculum Content.
Answer:
Adequacy
FBQ3:
In business education, commerce is one of the-------- subjects
Answer:
General
FBQ4:
To develop the skills for human relation-------- subject is required
Answer:
Secretarial duties
FBQ5:
How many skills are developed in shorthand?-------------
Answer:
Two
FBQ6:
Unplugging the equipment from the power source is a way of---------- equipment
Answer:
Maintaining
FBQ7:
Dike's report suggested the ________ type of training in business education
Answer:
Right
FBQ8: Curriculum
development, methodology, research techniques, Fundamentals of Business
Education are not Professional Education Courses. True or False______?
Answer:
False
FBQ9:
The basic requirements for the study of Business Education are_______
Answer:
English language Mathematics and Economics
FBQ10:
The major traditional subjects of business education are Shorthand and ______
Answer:
Typewriting
FBQ11:
Business education should include practical and theoretical orientation because
it involves__________ and __________ subjects
Answer:
Skilled/Non-skilled
FBQ12:
Convergers are usually authoritarians while the divergers are_______
Answer:
Liberal
FBQ13:
The equipment for a business education programme must be modern and a replica
of what is used in the business world. True or False_____?
Answer:
True
FBQ14:
If the equipment were to be used for a short time, purchasing the equipment
would be advisable. True or False______?
Answer:
False
FBQ15:
Record player, radio, cassette recorder are examples of Audio. True or
False______?
Answer:
True
FBQ16:
Small group instruction gives the learner a better opportunity for interaction
with other members. True or False________?
Answer:
True
FBQ17:
School activities must be organised from ______ to complex
Answer:
Simple
FBQ18:
With implementation of the Ashby commission report. The college that offered a
one-year programme leading to the award of NCE in Business Studies is _______
College?
Answer:
Olunloyo
FBQ19:
The training arrangements for business education teachers in Nigeria is done in
_______
Answer:
Colleges of Education, Polytechnics
FBQ20:
The curriculum for teacher preparation by NCCE prepares business teachers for
the teaching of ______ subjects at the junior secondary
Answer:
Pre-vocation
FBQ21:
The acronyms SIWES stands for ______
Answer:
Students Industrial Work Experience Scheme
FBQ22:
The teacher has to be competent in the teaching area to avoid lack of _______
on the part of the learners
Answer:
Confidence
FBQ23:
The Activists learns best form new ______
Answer:
Experiences
FBQ24:
Demonstration Method may be used when teaching______ skills
Answer:
Psychomotor
FBQ25:
Large Group Instructions enables the teacher to avoid duplication of_______.
Answer:
Effort
FBQ26:
Business education institutions were previously known as ______ Institutes.
Answer:
Commercial
FBQ27:
Learning is more
Effective when the
Learner knows the________ goal to be achieved
Answer:
Immediate
FBQ28:
Business education programme provides for the handicaps in the society. True or
False_____?
Answer:
True
FBQ29:
Reflectors participate less in a_______ discussion but believe in getting
things done through past or from experience.
Answer:
Group
FBQ30:
A business education teacher must hold certificate in __________ education
Answer:
Business
FBQ31:
Who select business education equipment for teaching and learning?
Answer:
Teachers
FBQ32:
The activists learn best from new experiences/problems, survives in teamwork
that is highly ________.
Answer:
Competitive
FBQ33:
The importance of anything done should be explained and understood by the______
Answer:
Learner
FBQ34:
Law of_______ says that learning takes place only when an individual is ready
to learn
Answer:
Readiness
FBQ35:
Question method of teaching can be divided into_________
Answer:
Three
MCQ1:
General education enables you to develop basic skills in reading and_______
Answer:
Computation
MCQ2:
Those with Bach. Ed in Principles and Methods can teach _______ and business
studies
Answer:
commerce
MCQ3: Everyone
needs general education irrespective of the person’s age, sex, ability or
background.
Answer:
Agree
MCQ4:
Which of the following statements is most correct_________?
Answer:
That those who studied business education at NCE and HND levels are qualified
to teach business education
MCQ5:
Period of training depends on how fast the apprentice could learn the
skill._____
Answer:
Agree
MCQ6:
Which of the report brought business education to its present
recognition_______?
Answer:
Ashby and Atkinson of 1960
MCQ7:
They enjoy being leaders and believe in tackling problems by brainstorming,
survives in teamwork that is highly competitive, the statement represents the good qualities
of an ________
Answer:
Activists
MCQ8:
Theorists Believe strongly that a good ________ must be given before they
accept a thing
Answer:
reason
MCQ9:
The content is not adequate to meet the requirement or fully sufficient for
what it has been stated to achieve; this means ________ of Curriculum Content
Answer:
Inadequacy
MCQ10:
As an entrepreneur, business education is important to you in the following
areas except________
Answer:
dealing with stubborn staff and customer
MCQ11:
_____ should be considered before
acquiring equipment for business education
Answer:
Cost and durability
MCQ12:
To provide technical knowledge and vocational skills necessary for industrial
and commercial development, we consider one of the objectives of vocational
school.
Answer:
Agree
MCQ13:
The _______ learns best from new experiences/problems, survives in teamwork
that is highly competitive.
Answer:
Activists
MCQ14:
Which of the following is correct about business education at tertiary
level_____?
Answer:
To empower you with desirable skills, knowledge and value to perform specific
functions so as to become self- reliant.
MCQ15:
All are objectives of Technical and Vocational Education as stated in the
UNESCO and ILO Document Except_____
Answer:
To enable students acquire functional skills in their chosen field.
MCQ16:
Which of the following does not belong to General Business Courses_______?
Answer:
Humanities
MCQ17:
Which of the following is not objective of Business Mathematics_______?
Answer:
Able to analyse situations
MCQ18:
Which of the following is objective of Book keeping_________?
Answer:
Improving arithmetical skill/developbasic skills in arithmetic
MCQ19:
Business Education is important to the nation because more people would have
skills that can make them ready employers of labour.
Answer:
Agree
MCQ20:
Which of the following is objective of Business Communication_________?
Answer:
Able to deal with customers by using the appropriate word
MCQ21:
The colonial masters used typewriters as their major office tool.
Answer:
Agree
MCQ22:
With the understanding of business education you can make informed decisions as
a consumer of _____and_________
Answer:
Goods, services
MCQ23:
Which of the following does not belong to Business Education
Courses/Vocational? _______
Answer:
Human relations
MCQ24:
_____ defined business education as the ideal training for a student with a
career objective
Answer:
Popham et al 1971
MCQ25:
_____ defined business education as the ideal training for a student with a
career objective
Answer:
Popham et al 1971
MCQ26:
Which of the following does not belong to General Education Courses_______?
Answer:
Commerce
MCQ27:
The following include the components of business studies Except________
Answer:
Fine & Applied Art
MCQ28:
Record player, radio, cassette recorder are examples of _______
Answer:
Audio Aids
MCQ29:
Pragmatists develop _______ and believe in getting things done without waste of
time
Answer:
Proposition
MCQ30:
They like to keep quiet in a group discussion, work from the past or from
experience and from there move forward. Who are they________?
Answer:
Reflectors
MCQ31:
Those questions that are based on information-presented in a text book,
reports, journals or periodicals is known as _______
Answer:
Facts
MCQ32:
Television and Radio could be used to
vary teaching methods in order to stimulate students‟ ________
Answer:
Interest.
MCQ33:
Textbooks, chalkboard, class bulletin board, mounted pictures, graphic
materials are examples of ________
Answer:
Visual Aids
MCQ34:
Which of the following does not belong to the group__________?
Answer:
Medical Science
MCQ35:
Work Adjustment subjects includes the following EXCEPT_________
Answer:
Economics
BED114
FBQ1: A
Debit note is issued if there has been an _______ on an invoice
Answer:
Undercharge
FBQ2:
_______ can be used for special types of correspondence that takes place within
an organization.
Answer:
Memo
FBQ3:
Credit note is prepared by the seller and sent to the _____
Answer:
Buyer
FBQ4:
Quotation is usually sent by the seller to the buyer in reply of the letter
of _______
Answer:
Enquiry
FBQ5: Business document refers to name given to
written records that provide the details of the transaction between _________.
Answer:
The buyer and the seller
FBQ6:
Catalog can be used for special types of correspondence that takes place within
an organization. True or False _____?
Answer:
False
FBQ7:
Business correspondence aid in maintaining proper relationship. True or
False_____?
Answer:
True
FBQ8:
Letter is a form of ______ communication
Answer:
Written
FBQ9:
Business letters leads to decline the goodwill of the firm. True or False?
Answer:
False
FBQ10:
Leaders of business organizations must not hoard information that deserves to
be made known to public. True or False_____?
Answer:
True
FBQ11:
Effective communication does not require the receivers to send feedback to the
sender. True or False____?
Answer:
False
FBQ12:
Activities accomplished under undue _____ constraint are usually not
effective.
Answer:
Time
FBQ13:
Too much information, the result is less ______ communication
Answer:
Effective
FBQ14:
Business leaders must be pro-active in information management. True or
False____?
Answer:
True
FBQ15:
Communication is the only reliable means of controlling rumor mongering. True
or False_____?
Answer:
True
FBQ16:
______ refers to the act of guarding against certain types of information.
Answer:
Screening
FBQ17:
Emotion refers to how a person feels at the ______of receipt of a piece of
information.
Answer:
Time
FBQ18:
On finding that the goods have been damaged in transit, the buyer writes
complaint letter to ______
Answer:
Transit Authority
FBQ19:
Motive of recovery letter is to ______ from the buyer
Answer:
Collect Money
FBQ20:
The buyer writes ______ to the seller, on receipt of defective goods
Answer:
Letter of Complaint
FBQ21:
Recovery letter draws the attention of the buyer towards _________
Answer:
Payment of Outstanding amount
FBQ22:
Trade discount is given to encourage bulk purchases. True or False____?
Answer:
True
FBQ23:
Cash discount is given to _______ prompt payment
Answer:
Encourage
FBQ24:
Trade discount is also referred to as_______
Answer:
Quantity Discount
FBQ25:
The document issued by the customs authority in order to examine the concerned
goods easily for calculating duties therein is known as _____
Answer:
Custom declaration form
FBQ26:
A document issued by the importer’s bank to the exporter giving a guarantee of
payment to the exporter is known as______
Answer:
Letter of credit
FBQ27:
Bill of lading is a document of ______
Answer:
Title to the goods
FBQ28: Bill of lading is similar to _____
Answer:
Airway bill
FBQ29:
Memorandum can otherwise be called ______
Answer:
Memoranda
FBQ30:
Memorandums are most important form of business correspondence used to record
and send message within an_______.
Answer:
Organization
FBQ31:
A complete letter is one that provides all necessary information to the users.
True or False____?
Answer:
True
FBQ32:
The statements written in the letter should be ______ to the best of the
Sender’s knowledge
Answer:
Accurate
FBQ33:
Ambiguous language creates _____
Answer:
Confusion
FBQ34:
Letter should be written in a _____ and easy language
Answer:
Simple
FBQ35:
Clarity is a quality of a good letter. TRUE or FALSE
Answer:
TRUE
MCQ1:
Stock cards are used to keep a record of all_____
Answer:
Inventories
MCQ2:
_________can be controlled through communication
Answer:
Rumour mongering
MCQ3: Horizontal communication may be divided into
______ principle categories
Answer: Three
MCQ4:
Conciseness, clarity are attributes of a ________
Answer: Good Report
MCQ5:
Upward flow of communication may take the following forms EXCEPT______
Answer:
Interdepartmental problem solving
MCQ6:
The art of bringing staff of various departments together at formal meetings
for amicable resolution of conflicts is known as________
Answer:
Conflict resolution
MCQ7:
Material Gathering is first step in report writing _______
Answer:
Agree
MCQ8: A
______ may be an account of something witnessed.
Answer:
Report
MCQ9: A
good report unfurnished facts and figures____
Answer:
Disagree
MCQ10:
Occasional Reports may be _____
and Situation report
Answer:
Disciplinary Report
MCQ11:
A credit note is printed in _____
Answer:
Red.
MCQ12:
Which of the following is sent to a customer when there has been an overcharge
on an invoice_________?
Answer: Credit Note:
MCQ13:
Written records that provide the details of transaction between the buyer and the seller is known as
_______
Answer:
Trade document.
MCQ14:
The_______ of a major partner may bring an end to the partnership
Answer:
Death
MCQ15:
A memo is an informal document, which may be presented in written or oral form.
Answer:
True
MCQ16:
Other supporting information to present which strengthens your business plan,
but which does not fit easily into the main text is contained in ______
Answer:
Appendixes
MCQ17:
Corporation have greater financial capability since capital can always be
raised by selling shares
Answer:
Agree
MCQ18:
Any special restrictions, rights, or duties of any partner contained in the
______
Answer:
Partnership Deed
MCQ19:
Child care, Recreational programme is a good example of services
Answer:
Agree
MCQ20:
Books or booklets can regarded as product______
Answer:
True
MCQ21:
Extreme emotions such as jubilations hinder effective communication______
Answer:
True
MCQ22: Business correspondence aid in maintaining
proper _______
Answer:
Relationship
MCQ23:
A neat letter is always unimpressive ______
Answer:
Disagree
MCQ24:
________ is necessary for the continued successful operation of business
______?
Answer:
Goodwill
MCQ25:
________ is necessary for the continued successful operation of business
______?
Answer:
Goodwill
MCQ26:
The fastest means of getting information to the receiver is through ______
Answer:
Telephone
MCQ27:
A receipt is given for ______ payment.
Answer:
Cash
MCQ28:
The authority and power of a corporation is centralized and delegated according
to necessity.
Answer:
Strongly Agree
MCQ29:
What is the name given to a written communication sent through the post_______?
Answer:
Letter
MCQ30:
NIPOST means ______
Answer:
Nigeria Postal Service
MCQ31:
Formal transfer of share certificate titles is normally handled by a ________
Answer:
Fiduciary agents
MCQ32:
Business document help to assess the rate of _______ and ______
Answer:
tax , revenue
MCQ33:
Time can be a barrier to effective ______
Answer:
Communication
MCQ34:
Trade Discount is given to encourage bulk purchase_______
Answer:
Agree
MCQ35:
Written records that provide the details of transaction between the buyer and the seller.is known as
_______
Answer:
Trade document
BED212
FBQ1:
Computer-oriented data processing systems are not designed to imitate _________
Answer:
Manual systems
FBQ2:
The collection and manipulation of items of data to produce meaningful
information is _____
Answer:
Data processing
FBQ3:
In data processing, the ________ is data, and the output is useful information
Answer:
Input
FBQ4:
Computer data processing systems can be designed to take advantage of four capabilities
of computers. Such as Accuracy, Ease of communications, Capacity of storage and
Speed. TRUE or False_______?
Answer:
True
FBQ5:
To delete a record in an ordered Sequential file, all the records with a key
value less than the record to be deleted must be written to the new file. True
or False_____?
Answer:
True
FBQ6:
To delete a record in an ordered Sequential file, all the records with a key
value less than the record to be deleted must not be written to the new file.
True or False_____?
Answer:
False
FBQ7:
______ play important roles in the operations of Computer
Answer:
Software
FBQ8: Database management system organizes the
_____ of data in such a way to facilitate its retrieval for many different
applications.
Answer:
Storage
FBQ9:
Examples of Word processing packages are Windows Microsoft Word and_____
Answer:
Windows Word perfect
FBQ10:
SAS Stands for _______
Answer:
Statistical Analysis for Scientists
FBQ11:
DBMS application packages available for use today are Oracles and _____
Answer:
FoxPro
FBQ12:
Tabulation is the final step in _______
Answer:
data processing
FBQ13:
Application software comes from ______ sources.
Answer:
Two
FBQ14:
________involves maintenance of details of all jobs carried out by the computer
Answer:
Operations log
FBQ15:
Software are categorized into _____ broad ways
Answer:
Two
FBQ16:
LCDs use much less power than a _____
Answer:
Normal monitor
FBQ17:
What is the name of material used to create each pixel on the screen______?
Answer:
Liquid Crystal
FBQ18:
Data are a collection of _____
Answer:
Facts
FBQ19:
The 1850 United States Census schedule was the first to gather data by
individual rather than _______
Answer:
Household
FBQ20:
A set of related files is called a ________
Answer:
Data base
FBQ21:
Data elements are also called ________
Answer:
Data items
FBQ22:
The process of producing useful information is _____
Answer:
Outputting
FBQ23:
Storing is ______ data or information
Answer:
Saving
FBQ24:
A digital camera looks very similar to a _______ camera
Answer:
Traditional
FBQ25:
Facilities are required to house the computer equipment, people and
______
Answer:
Materials
FBQ26:
sex, ethnicity, are example of_______ variable
Answer:
Categorical
FBQ27:
Inputting is the process of ______data,
Answer:
Entering
FBQ28:
Directing the manner and sequence in which all of the above operations are
performed refers to as ______
Answer:
Controlling
FBQ29:
Records are collections of _____
data elements
Answer:
Related
FBQ30: Summarization
reduces detail data to its main points. Yes or No____?
Answer:
Yes
FBQ31:
A _______ is another way in which we can capture still images or text to be
stored and used on a computer.
Answer:
Scanner
FBQ32:
The process of thoroughly checking the collected data to ensure optimal quality
levels refers to as_______
Answer:
Data validation
FBQ33:
Data processing include the steps of data entry, editing, coding, validation
and ______
Answer:
Tabulation
FBQ34:
A skilled typist can enter data very _____
Answer:
quickly
FBQ35:
The Control Unit (CU) controls the flow of data within the _______
Answer:
CPU
MCQ1:
Keyboard function keys comprises all except _______
Answer:
Logic part
MCQ2:
_______ refers to the process of thoroughly checking the collected data to
ensure optimal quality levels.
Answer:
Data validation
MCQ3:
Operating system are computer-oriented software which controls the Internal
operation of___________
Answer:
computer system
MCQ4:
The research problem may be selected from the daily problems
Answer:
Agree
MCQ5:
The acceptance of a false null hypothesis when it should have been rejected is
referred to as________
Answer:
Type II error
MCQ6:
The Originating Questions represent the ______
Answer:
Beginning of certain difficulties or challenges
MCQ7:
Data Processing is a data collection, storage, retrieval, processing,
transformation and ______
Answer:
transmission
MCQ8: A
hypothesis should be free from vagueness and ambiguity
Answer:
Agree
MCQ9:
Hypothesis can be expressed as a one-sentence hypothesis
Answer:
Agree
MCQ10:
A statistical procedure which makes use of sample statistics to make inferences
about the population parameters is known as ______
Answer:
Inferential Statistics
MCQ11:
Files on a computer can be created, moved, modified, grown, shrunk and deleted
Answer:
Agree
MCQ12:
A system that organizes the storage of data in such a way to facilitate its
retrieval for many different applications is termed as _____
Answer:
Database management system
MCQ13:
Supplementary page of research report includes bibliography, appendices and
Index
Answer:
Agree
MCQ14:
The extent to which the study will be covered in term of geographical area,
time period, and variables to be covered is stated in ______
Answer:
Scope of the Study
MCQ15:
DPMA is an acronym for ______
Answer:
Data Processing Management Association
MCQ16:
The final step in data processing is known as _______
Answer:
Tabulation
MCQ17:
Output devices includes the following except_______
Answer:
Mouse
MCQ18:
The control unit control the flow of data within the CPU.______
Answer:
Agree
MCQ19:
What is part of a database that holds only one type of information_______?
Answer:
Field
MCQ20:
_______ are any facts, numbers, or text that can be processed by a computer
Answer:
Data
MCQ21:
Gif is an extension of _______
Answer:
Image file
MCQ22:
Where is the headquarters of Microsoft office located__________?
Answer:
Washington
MCQ23:
There is no significant difference in achievement between male and female
Business Education students, is a form of ____
Answer:
Hypothesis
MCQ24:
Internal Criteria consists of: Researcher’s interest, Researcher’s own
resource, and Researcher’s competence________
Answer:
Agree
MCQ25:
Internal Criteria consists of: Researcher’s interest, Researcher’s own
resource, and Researcher’s competence________
Answer:
Agree
MCQ26:
Existing theory guides _________ in formulating research problems
Answer:
Researchers
MCQ27:
Research that is generally associated with the positivist/post positivist paradigm
known as_______
Answer:
Quantitative research
MCQ28:
What is the name giving to the set of instructions that direct the operations
of computers_________?
Answer:
Computer Software
MCQ29:
________ cameras are generally more expensive than ordinary cameras
Answer:
Digital
MCQ30:
OCR Stand for ______
Answer:
"Optical Character Reader"
MCQ31:
Pie Chart is used to represent both discrete and_________
Answer:
Continuous data.
MCQ32:
What is the name given to the set of instructions that direct the operations of
computers______?
Answer:
Computer Software
MCQ33:
Mac operating system is developed by which company_________?
Answer:
Apple
MCQ34:
Companies and organizations across the world make use of data processing
services in order to facilitate their market research interests.
Answer:
Agree
MCQ35:
A dual layer Blue-ray can store data up to _____
Answer:
50GB
BED214
FBQ1:
Control + J is short cut for ________
Answer:
Justify
FBQ2:
N.P. indicated by the side of a word in a sentence, indicates starts a new ____
Answer:
Paragraph
FBQ3:
Letters written or received from relatives and friends are termed as ______
Answer:
Personal Letters
FBQ4:
There is no communication if the receiver cannot decode (interpret) What has
been sent? True or False_______?
Answer:
True
FBQ5:
You are not to use other people’s computer resources without _______
Answer:
Authorisation
FBQ6:
You are not to use a computer to _____ other people.
Answer:
Harm
FBQ7:
Software virus is parasitic programmes which can _____themselves.
Answer:
Replicate
FBQ8:
The value in A2 is subtracted from the value in A1means _____
Answer:
A1-A2
FBQ9:
the value in X4 is divided by the value in Y4means ______
Answer:
=X4/Y4
FBQ10:
The value 2 is raised to the power of 8., it means____
Answer:
=2^8
FBQ11:
Statistics is often referred to as a subset of______
Answer:
Mathematics
FBQ12:
Mode is the arithmetic value that occurs _____ in a set of data.
Answer:
Most frequently
FBQ13:
Standard deviation is a measure of how widely data values are ______ from the
arithmetical mean
Answer:
Dispersed
FBQ14:
There are ______ basic ways of managing large worksheets.
Answer:
Three
FBQ15:
How many types of charts are available in excel?______
Answer:
Eleven
FBQ16:
The ____ finger is used in typing letter E
Answer:
D
FBQ17:
Computer graphics refer to any _____ that can be produced by computer.
Answer:
Pictorial representation
FBQ18:
Graphics could be charts, diagrams or ______
Answer:
Pictures
FBQ19:
Paint Programs allow the user to integrate ____ into a document.
Answer:
Arts
FBQ20:
CAD programme is used for computer-aided drafting and used to assist designers
of products in _______
Answer:
Drawing plan
FBQ21:
Other graphics software include CorelDraw and______
Answer:
Photoshop
FBQ22: A collection of organised data with
relationship in their elements is refered to as ______
Answer:
A database
FBQ23:
Learn to blink at regular intervals when you use computer this would help
reduce________
Answer:
Strain
FBQ24:
Ctrl + V is a short cut for ____
Answer:
Paste
FBQ25:
The acronyms MDT stands for ______
Answer:
Mobile Data Terminal
FBQ26:
Ctrl + B is a short cut for ____
Answer:
Bold
FBQ27:
_______ Compatibility is very important when upgrading your personal computer.
Answer:
Memory
FBQ28:
Legal and medical office management systems are examples of _______
Answer:
Vertical applications.
FBQ29:
The _______ enables you to change setting while typing
Answer:
Ruler
FBQ30: What
determine the kind of computer hardware and software that organisation would
need_______?
Answer:
Need
FBQ31:
A dual layer Blue -ray can store data up to ________
Answer:
50GB
FBQ32:
Rows in a table are called ______
Answer:
Records
FBQ33:
Columns in a table are called______
Answer:
Fields
FBQ34:
It is best to use ____ when you want a particular text to appear at the bottom
of every page of a document except the first page
Answer:
Footer
FBQ35:
The international size of paper for typing long letters and memoranda is ____
Answer:
A4 portrait
MCQ1:
When the first line in a paragraph is flushed to the left hand margin, while
the subsequent lines are indented, it means _____ paragraph is used.
Answer:
Hanging
MCQ2:
When all lines in a document begin at the left-hand margin, it means _____
paragraph is used
Answer:
blocked
MCQ3:
'OS' Computer abbreviation usually means________?
Answer:
Operating System
MCQ4:
The short cut of launching the find command is _____
Answer:
ctrl + f
MCQ5:
________ can be calculated in Access by selecting the desired values by using
Query
Answer: Grand total
MCQ6:
One of the careers that can be made from computer is _____
Answer:
Graphic artist
MCQ7:
The following relates to health industry except______
Answer:
E-learning
MCQ8:
To track sales, one of the following would be most useful____
Answer:
Database management
MCQ9:
Problems cannot be separated from _____
Answer:
normal human daily activities
MCQ10:
The major features of Microsoft Office
Outlook 2007 includes all Except_______
Answer:
Ribbon
MCQ11:
Which of the following can be used for updating and deleting multiple
records at the same time? _____
Answer:
Query
MCQ12:
You can copy or cut text or object from paint environment to other environments
such as word and excel.
Answer:
Agree
MCQ13:
Computer graphics are used in every kind of business Except______
Answer:
Moulding
MCQ14:
Graphing programs include all Except______
Answer:
Paint
MCQ15:
The following are the types of charts excel provides Except_______
Answer:
all the options
MCQ16:
The mean is the arithmetical average of a set of ____
Answer:
Data
MCQ17:
The following are common statistics that are used in problem analysis
Except______
Answer:
Corel Draw
MCQ18:
Which of the following can be used to secure access to documents________?
Answer:
Password
MCQ19: Data or information generated or received
need to be secure for the following reasons Except_______
Answer:
For intruders
MCQ20:
All are challenges that are usually encountered in tabular work Except________
Answer:
Copying
MCQ21:
The memoranda are another form of _______ communication in a business.
Answer:
Written
MCQ22:
Without the writer’s signature, a business letter is disregarded.
Answer:
Agree
MCQ23:
To track assigned task in Access, click ______
Answer:
Option
MCQ24:
Any business should avoid _____
Answer:
computer misuse
MCQ25:
Any business should avoid _____
Answer:
computer misuse
MCQ26:
All are most commonly used business documents EXCEPT______
Answer:
Map
MCQ27: CPU
means________
Answer:
Central Processing Unit
MCQ28:
To prevent virus use any antivirus programme like______
Answer:
Symantec Antivirus for Macintosh,Norton Antivirus & McAfee Virus Scan
MCQ29:
The information that need to be documented in radiology may come from _____
Answer:
Tele-pathology
MCQ30:
The following are the main problems associated with business except _____
Answer:
Manage list of contacts
MCQ31: Formatting means choosing a style with which
a document could be ________
Answer:
Display
MCQ32:
One of the careers that can be made from computer is ____
Answer:
graphic artist
MCQ33:
Where is the headquarter of Microsoft office located______?
Answer:
Washington
MCQ34:
_______ in computer is used for security.
Answer:
Firewall
MCQ35:
Right justification in a text means _____
Answer:
only the right hand margin would be justified
PED121
FBQ1:
Advanced form of thinking in adolescence is called.____ operation.
Answer:
Formal
FBQ2:
Brain lateralization is responsible for ------- in children.
Answer:
Handedness
FBQ3:
The mental process of incorporating new knowledge to existing ones implies
____.
Answer:
Assimilation
FBQ4:
Human being has the ability to ____ behaviour to suit their aim.
Answer:
Change
FBQ5:
The ____ helps to unravel why human being is different.
Answer:
Psychology
FBQ6:
Science is ____ in attributes/characteristics.
Answer:
Logical
FBQ7: A
project that measure what it aims to measure denotes ____
Answer:
Validity
FBQ8: A
test that is consistent in the attributes it measures implies____
Answer:
Reliability
FBQ9:
____ describes the internal processes that energise, direct and sustain
behaviour.
Answer:
Motivation
FBQ10:
Carrying out same research in another setting implies ____
Answer:
Replication
FBQ11:
Research endeavour that maintained consistency has satisfied ____
Answer:
Reliability
FBQ12:
____ Is described as science of human behaviour
Answer:
Psychology
FBQ13:
Behaviour that can be directly observed is ____ behaviour.
Answer:
Overt
FBQ14:
____ Is the bridge between adolescence and adulthood.
Answer:
Middle Age
FBQ15:
Individual mental schemes determine the way he interpret ____
Answer:
Experience
FBQ16:
____ Refers to a small word with meaning.
Answer:
Morphemes
FBQ17:
____. Represents the reality domain.
Answer:
Ego
FBQ18:
____ Is a constituent of the nervous system.
Answer:
Brain
FBQ19:
____ The primary male sex hormone is
Answer:
Testosterone
FBQ20:
____ is the process of grouping isolated behaviour into a higher cognitive
system.
Answer:
Organisation
FBQ21:
The researcher does not manipulate the ____ group during experimentation.
Answer:
Control
FBQ22:
____ Interprets societal values.
Answer:
Superego
FBQ23:
Individual difference is a product of the ____.
Answer:
Gene
FBQ24:
____ School was founded by Freud.
Answer:
Psychoanalysis
FBQ25:
____ Is a major pioneer of cognitive school?
Answer:
Piaget
FBQ26:
____ Is the father of cognitive school
Answer:
Piaget
FBQ27:
____ Method of data collection is more time consuming
Answer:
Interview
FBQ28:
____ is the sum of growth, development and learning.
Answer:
Maturation
FBQ29:
Studying one entity in research methodology
involves ____ study.
Answer:
Case study
FBQ30:
The first stage of development is the ____ stage.
Answer:
Germinal
FBQ31:
Increase in the magnitude of body parts denotes
____
Answer:
Growth
FBQ32:
The capacity to stand upright denotes ____control.
Answer:
Postural
FBQ33:
Before fertilization, the reproductive cell in female is called ____
Answer:
Egg
FBQ34:
____ The capacity to function at a higher level denotes
Answer:
Development
FBQ35:
The skin is developed from ____
Answer:
Ectoderm
MCQ1:
Pattern of human growth is not characterised by______.
Answer:
Directions
MCQ2:
______ refers to changes in existing ways of thinking in response to stimili.
Answer:
Accommodation
MCQ3:
______ does not influence cognitive development.
Answer:
Objectivity
MCQ4:
__________describes the internal processes that energise direct and sustain
behaviour.
Answer:
Information processing
MCQ5:
Behaviour that can be seen directly is __________behaviour.
Answer:
Overt
MCQ6:
Individual mental schemes determine the way he interpret __________
Answer:
Experience
MCQ7:
________ Interprets societal values.
Answer:
Superego
MCQ8:
__________ Experimented more with children.
Answer:
Piaget
MCQ9:
__________ Can be distributed anonymously.
Answer:
Questionnaire
MCQ10:
__________ Method of data collection is more time consuming.
Answer:
Interview
MCQ11:
Examining children of varying ages involved __________ study
Answer:
Cross-sectional
MCQ12:
The researcher does not manipulate the __________ group.
Answer:
Control
MCQ13:
Increase in gait and body mass is __________.
Answer:
Growth
MCQ14:
__________ Directly correlates with chronological age.
Answer:
Maturation
MCQ15:
The primary male sex hormone is__________
Answer:
Testosterone
MCQ16:
_________ is not an example of schemes.
Answer:
Learning
MCQ17:
_________ is not an example of postural reflex.
Answer:
Swimming
MCQ18:
The skin is developed from _________.
Answer:
Ectoderm
MCQ19:
______ refers to an individual’s sense of uniqueness and belonging.
Answer:
Identity
MCQ20:
_________ is the process of grouping isolated behaviour into a higher cognitive
system.
Answer:
Organisation
MCQ21:
The pituitary gland, also sometimes called the ____, secretes hormones that
cause other endocrine glands to produce their own hormones.
Answer:
Master gland
MCQ22: _________ Propounded the psychosocial theory.
Answer:
Erickson
MCQ23: Motor
achievement in early childhood include all except ____.
Answer:
Self-recognition
MCQ24:
Attrition rate is highest in _________ research.
Answer:
longitudinal study
MCQ25:
Humans are not rigid due to _________.
Answer:
Learning
MCQ26:
The transition into adolescence is marked by dramatic changes in ____ abilities
Answer:
Cognitive
MCQ27:
Development is not characterized by _________.
Answer:
Reverse
MCQ28:
Individual difference is a product of_________.
Answer:
Gene
MCQ29:
Perception does not include _________.
Answer:
Simulation
MCQ30:
Which of these senses are inborn?
Answer:
Taste
MCQ31:
_________ is not a primary taste.
Answer:
Smell
MCQ32:
Motivation describe the internal processes that _________ behaviour,
Answer:
Dictate
MCQ33: Children
discover the type of physical skill required to perform a task at ____ stage.
Answer:
Cognitive stage
MCQ34:
_________ Research tool is the best option when subjects are many.
Answer:
Questionnaire
MCQ35:
Scientific findings must be proved by _________.
Answer:
Evidence
PED122
MCQ1:
----- are usually used for formative purposes.
Answer:
Tests
MCQ2:
Identify one basic way in which reliability can be measured..
Answer:
Split-half method
MCQ3:
--- is a way of approaching and solving a problem or a task
Answer:
A strategy
MCQ4:
What do we call various activities that learners are engaged in in the process
of learning?
Answer:
Learning experiences
MCQ5:
Audio-lingua method was propounded by
----
Answer:
Skinner
MCQ6:
Which theorists argued that human beings were endowed with an innate capacity
to learn a language?
Answer:
Chomsky and Lenneberg
MCQ7:
The two main language teaching methods are ----
Answer:
the audio-lingual and communicative language teaching
MCQ8:
State the three levels at which comprehension can occur.
Answer:
Literal, interpretive and utilization
MCQ9:
Reading for exact meaning is an example of ----
Answer:
Intensive reading
MCQ10:
The process of making decision about the worth of something is ---
Answer:
Evaluation
MCQ11:
The following measures help to identify
learners’ needs in curriculum planning
except
Answer:
Interview
MCQ12:
--- are derived from the general
goals/aims of instruction
Answer:
Learning objectives
MCQ13:
Who constitute an important factor in planning a curriculum?
Answer:
The learners
MCQ14:
The extensive reading aspect consists of
three areas, --- , --- and ---
Answer:
Individual reading, class reader and specific skills training
MCQ15:
Which kind of affixes frequently alters the word class of the base?
Answer:
Suffixes
MCQ16:
All these are problems associated with reading except--------------
Answer:
Decipher
MCQ17:
The following are components of curriculum except -----
Answer:
Teaching experience
MCQ18:
What consists of all what the teacher is going to teach?
Answer:
Content
MCQ19:
An example of a summative evaluation ----
Answer:
Examinations
MCQ20:
The following are qualities of a good
test/examination except ----
Answer:
Stability
MCQ21:
What are the three basic ways to measure reliability?
Answer:
test-retest, split-half and internal
consistency
MCQ22:
Evaluation can be divided into ---- or
---- purposes
Answer:
formative or summative
MCQ23:
To discover----- the learners must read the whole paragraph.
Answer:
Topic sentence
MCQ24:
In selecting the content the curriculum
planner must ensure the following criteria
except ----
Answer:
Observation
MCQ25:
A method of teaching is based on a given -----
Answer:
philosophy or theory
MCQ26:
One of the factors affecting listening comprehension is ---------
Answer:
lack of Concentration
MCQ27:
The following are specific reading comprehension skills that must be developed
through training your learners except-----
Answer:
Reading for specific purpose
MCQ28:
Intensive reading involves the following except ---
Answer:
Reading for pleasure
MCQ29:
What measure how well an item separates the better candidates from the weaker
ones?
Answer:
Discrimination
MCQ30:
The following are advantages of objective
test except ----
Answer:
Permit free flow of idea
MCQ31:
------ are examination conducted
nationally or internationally by
recognized examination bodies
Answer:
Public Examination
MCQ32:
In secondary school, the apex organisational structure is called -----
Answer:
Principal
MCQ33:
A group of people working together to form part of a large organization
such as a university or school is called -----
Answer:
Department
MCQ34:
Reading for exact meaning, reading for implied meaning and reading for
relationship of thoughts constitute -----
Answer:
intensive reading skills
MCQ35:
An intensive reading lesson include the following except
Answer:
Reading readiness
Answers
27: Intensive reading involves the following except ---
Answer:
Reading for pleasure
FBQ1:
Who is the ultimate beneficiary of any curriculum?
Answer:
The learner
FBQ2:
---- refer to the modes of teaching or testing a subject matter
Answer:
Methods
FBQ3:
Another name for learning objectives is
----
Answer:
Learning outcomes
FBQ4:
What is the procedure for identifying the knowledge, skills, abilities and
attitudes of a particular group of learners?
Answer:
Needs analysis
FBQ5:
----is a way or manner of approaching and solving a problem or task.
Answer:
Strategy
FBQ6:
How many are the key components in curriculum development?
Answer:
six
FBQ7:
Who are curriculum designers and implementers?
Answer:
The teachers
FBQ8:
Which method dominated language teaching in the 60’s and 70’s?
Answer:
The Audio-lingual method
FBQ9:
The number of words that the eye can
take in at each fixation is ---
Answer:
Eye span
FBQ10:
Reading can be divided into ---- and
reading aloud.
Answer:
silent reading
FBQ11:
Which approach is learners’ centered?
Answer:
The communicative
FBQ12:
---- has to do with speaking and listening
Answer:
Oral-Aural skills
FBQ13:
Which level of reading comprehension asks learners the questions of what, how,
and when?
Answer:
literal
FBQ14:
-----is useful in the teaching of discrete forms of language.
Answer:
Audio-lingual method
FBQ15:
The English --------is different from English sounds
Answer:
orthography
FBQ16:
A ------- is a way or manner of approaching and solving a problem or task.
Answer:
strategy
FBQ17:
--------- can be done through tests
and examinations
Answer:
Evaluation
FBQ18:
Tests are used for formative purposes, True/False
Answer:
True
FBQ19:
------is the ability to use, determine the use, consequences andeffects of a
piece of writing.
Answer:
Extrapolation
FBQ20:
--- is a set of books which the class privately reads.
Answer:
Class reader
FBQ21:
The content must be relevant to the realization of the stated objectives,
True/False
Answer:
True
FBQ22:
The ability to understand spoken English which satisfies the requirements of
national and international intelligibility
Answer:
Listening
FBQ23:
-------- deals with the development of
translation, interpretation and extrapolation
Answer:
Reading
FBQ24:
A learning perspective which is connected to different cognitive process is
called -------
Answer:
reading
FBQ25:
------- is the complex set of rules specifying combinations of words identified
by sounds or spelling into larger units
Answer:
Grammar
FBQ26:
The national curriculum for primary school was developed by ---------.
Answer:
NERDC
FBQ27:
----- measure accurately what the test
is purports to measure.
Answer:
Validity
FBQ28:
Substitution and repetition drills are examples of -----------
Answer:
Pattern drills
FBQ29:
Topic sentence expresses the ------ and is supported by other sentences?
Answer:
main idea
FBQ30:
Which paragraph help learners to identify why certain occurrences happen?
Answer:
Cause-effect
FBQ31:
The arts of rewriting in words other than the original is called ---
Answer:
Paraphrase
FBQ32:
Rapid coverage of reading materials is known as--
Answer:
Skimming
FBQ33:
English vowel sounds can be categorized into monphthongs and
------
Answer:
Diphthongs
FBQ34:
What is the full meaning of NABTEB?
Answer:
National Board for Technical Education
FBQ35:
----------- occurs when a test give the same results consistently.
Answer:
Reliability
PED130
FBQ1: A
generalization is a statement of broad applicability that shows a ------------
between two or more concepts.
Answer:
Relationship
FBQ2:
The Mombassa conference was sponsored by EDC Newton USA and --------------
London.
Answer:
CREDO
FBQ3:
EDC means -------------------
Answer:
Educational Development Centre
FBQ4:
CREDO means --------------
Answer:
Centre for Curriculum Renewer in Educational development overseas
FBQ5:
The number of Africa countries (including Nigeria) represented at the
conference were ----------------
Answer:
Eleven (II)
FBQ6:
The major decision reached at the Mombassa conference was that --------------
for social studies, for schools in Africa should be developed.
Answer:
New Curricula
FBQ7: A
condition in which some people in a community view as undesirable can be
referred to as -----------------------
Answer:
Social problem
FBQ8:
The identification of a social problem depends on the believe system and
--------------------- of people living in the relevant society
Answer:
Values
FBQ9:
To recognise a problem as being social in nature, there must be a significant
discrepancy between social standard and social ----------------
Answer:
Reality
FBQ10:
Interests, benefits, advantages, rules of conduct and forbearance in a given
social setting which are recognised and protected by law and capable of
enforcement by a legal process are called -----------------
Answer:
Rights
FBQ11:
Rights of individual to enjoy what every human being deserves is called
--------------
Answer:
Human Rights
FBQ12:
The concept of human rights began in Ancient -----------------------
Answer:
Greece
FBQ13:
CEDAW means ------------------- of all Forms of Discrimination Against Wome
Answer:
Convention on the Elimination
FBQ14:
CRC means -----------------------
Answer:
Convention on Rights of the Child
FBQ15:
The first generation rights is -------------------
Answer:
Civil and Political Rights
FBQ16:
The rights that relate to social equality are called Economics, Social and
------------- rights.
Answer:
Cultural
FBQ17:
A specially written document which
outlines the principles and basic political institutions by which a state is
governed is called ----------
Answer:
Constitution
FBQ18:
The human right that states that no citizen can be detained unlawfully is
referred to as ------------------
Answer:
Right to personal liberty
FBQ19:
The right to hold opinions, receive and import ideas and information without
interference is called Right to freedom of -------------------
Answer:
Expression
FBQ20:
AU means ---------------
Answer:
African Union
FBQ21:
The AU is governed by the AU Assembly of Heads of State and the
----------------- parliament
Answer:
Pan African
FBQ22:
The new social studies in Britain emphasizes insights, concepts and
generalization, partially derived from --------------
Answer:
Social Sciences
FBQ23:
Five subjects under the social sciences that are related to social studies are
Political Science, Geography, Economics, -------- and ----------
Answer:
Anthropology and Sociology
FBQ24:
ASSP means --------------------------
Answer:
African Social studies programme
FBQ25:
Goals of social studies includes Developing well informed and --------------
citizens
Answer:
Responsible
FBQ26:
Building attitudes and ---------- that are consistent with society desires
Answer:
Values
FBQ27:
Developing the appreciation and understanding of learners ------------ heritage
and its role in contemporary society
Answer:
Cultural
FBQ28:
Acquisition of academic knowledge and Skills related to the study of
------------ and other consequences as they live individually as well as in
groups and in a variety of places and time.
Answer:
human actions
FBQ29:
ASESP means -----------------
Answer:
African Social and Environmental Studies programme
FBQ30:
Among the goals of social studies is the development of --------- for one’s
country and positive attitude to citizenship
Answer:
Love
FBQ31:
To promote the sympathetic appreciation to the diversity and ---------- among
peoples of all races, colours and creeds.
Answer:
Interdependence
FBQ32:
To make learners become more responsive to the ---- and -------- of others, so
that they can act courageously towards bringing about changes that are in line
with democratic ideals and processes of the society.
Answer:
Needs and problems
FBQ33:
Fraenkel (1973) defined concepts as mental -------- invented by human actors to
describe the characteristics that are common to a number of experiences.
Answer:
Construction
FBQ34:
Two types of classificatory concepts are ---------- and --------
Answer:
Conjunctive and Disjunctive
FBQ35:
Social studies in Africa emerge after 1960's when most African countries were
-------- colonies
Answer:
European
MCQ1:
The main goal of social studies programme involves
Answer:
All of the options
MCQ2:
What year did ABU Zaria introduced the Bed programme in social studies
Answer:
1978
MCQ3:
What year was social studies made a core subject at primary and junior
secondary school
Answer:
1980
MCQ4:
The primary objective and function of social studies is
Answer:
Human relationship
MCQ5:
The social studies teacher is expected to package and teach subject content
that promote _______________
Answer:
Patriotism and citizenship
MCQ6:
What is growth
Answer:
All the options
MCQ7:
Objective of social studies in Nigerian secondary school is
Answer:
Study physical, social and political environment
MCQ8: Values of Social Studies include
Answer:
Cultural heritage
MCQ9:
Which of the following statement is an example of generalization
Answer:
Honesty is the best policy for successful living
MCQ10:
Which of these is an organ of African Union
Answer:
General assembly
MCQ11:
Right to Education and shelter can be categorized under
Answer:
Economic, social and cultural right
MCQ12:
One of the ideal definition of social studies given by frost and Rowland (1969)
sees social studies
Answer:
As studies of human relationship
MCQ13:
The development of social studies in the United states started in what year
Answer:
1900
MCQ14:
Keybook and curriculum projects in social studies emerged in Britain in the
year
Answer:
1968
MCQ15:
A continental concern for social studies in Africa started in
Answer:
1967
MCQ16:
The new social studies began in what year
Answer:
1960's
MCQ17:
Social studies is defined as
Answer:
Amalgamation of arts and social sciences
MCQ18:
Which of these constitute a social problem in our society
Answer:
Prostitution
MCQ19:
Ohio state university of USA trained some Nigerians in social studies in the
year
Answer:
1958
MCQ20:
Quartey (1984) gave definition of social studies as
Answer:
Equipping youths with tools for solving personal and community problems
MCQ21:
What is SOSAN
Answer:
Social Studies Association of Nigeria
MCQ22:
Social studies was introduced to Western Nigeria in years between 1964 and 1965
through
Answer:
Aiyetoro Comprehensive high school project
MCQ23:
What affected the success of social studies in Eastern Nigeria
Answer:
The Civil War
MCQ24:
When was social studies introduced into Ahmadu Bello University Zaria
Answer:
1969
MCQ25:
The first social studies national conference was held where and in what year
Answer:
Lagos 1969
MCQ26:
Social studies materials produced for primary and teachers colleges in Northern
Nigeria came out which year
Answer:
1970
MCQ27:
The first curriculum workshop was held in
Answer:
Ibadan
MCQ28:
Which body sponsored the workshop
Answer:
NERC
MCQ29:
The social studies syllabus for teachers colleges was produced in 1972 by
Answer:
Nigeria Education Research Council
MCQ30:
The first social studies syllabus for primary schools was produced when
Answer:
During the first national workshop
MCQ31:
The goal of social studies according to NCSS (1992) is
Answer:
Education for Cultural Integration and sustainable living
MCQ32:
Social studies is about
Answer:
All of the options
MCQ33:
The content and purpose of social studies focus on
Answer:
Relationships
MCQ34:
Which country is considered to be the 'mother' country of social studies
Answer:
United State of America
MCQ35:
Who are the founders of social studies
Answer:
All of the options
PED144
MCQ1:
The following are the main goals of teaching mathematics at the primary school
level except _________
Answer:
To help students to memorise mathematical formula
MCQ2:
The revised National Mathematics Curriculum for Basic Education in Nigeria is
focused on giving children the opportunity to do the following except:
Answer:
Acquire the ability for rote learning
MCQ3:
The following is one of the six (6) themes in the revised curriculum
Answer:
Everyday Statistics
MCQ4:
Each of the following is a theme in the revised mathematics curriculum except:
____________
Answer:
Directed Numbers
MCQ5:
The curriculum aids the teacher by prescribing the following except:
Answer:
Disciplinary measures to take when students misbehave
MCQ6:
The following recommendations would help in ensuring that the curriculum
achieve the objectives for which it is made except :______
Answer:
Only first class graduates must teach at that level
MCQ7:
The following are manipulatives for teaching Counting/Basic Addition &
Subtraction Pictures except: ______________
Answer:
One 35 cl bottle of water
MCQ8:
The following are manipulatives for teaching Positive and Negative Integers
Picture______________
Answer:
All of the above options
MCQ9:
If a pupil is unable to solve abstract problem after teaching him using
concrete object, as a teacher what would
you do ___________
Answer:
re-teach the concept/skill at the concrete level using appropriate concrete
objects
MCQ10:
For a student with learning difficulty the following approach would help to improve
his/her performance
Answer:
All of the options
MCQ11:
According to Graham et al (1992), ____________ refers to a variety of
self-regulation strategies that students can use to manage themselves as
learners and direct their own behavior, including their attention?
Answer:
Self-instruction
MCQ12:
___________ is a term used to describe a wide array of tutoring arrangements,
that involved students working in pairs to help one another learn or practice
an academic task
Answer:
Peer tutoring
MCQ13:
CRA stands for _________
Answer:
Concrete Representational Abstract
MCQ14:
According to Access Centre (2004) CRA works well with the following groups of
people:
Answer:
All of the options
MCQ15:
Before Piaget moved into the study of the development of children's
understanding, who was he?
Answer:
Biologist
MCQ16:
In what ways was Jean Piaget studying the development of children
understanding?
Answer:
All of the options
MCQ17:
According to Piaget’s theory, the first period of cognitive development is called
_______ stage
Answer:
sensorimotor
MCQ18:
According to Piaget’s theory, the second period of cognitive development is
called _______ stage
Answer:
Preoperational
MCQ19:
According to Piaget’s theory, the fourth period of cognitive development is called
_______ stage
Answer:
Formal operational
MCQ20:
According to Piaget’s theory, the third period of cognitive development is
called _______ stage
Answer:
concrete operational
MCQ21:
In Bloom’s taxonomy of educational objectives, recall or recognition of terms,
ideas, , procedures, theories etc describes the ________ level
Answer:
Knowledge
MCQ22:
In Bloom’s taxonomy of educational objectives, breaking down information into
component parts describes the __________ level
Answer:
Analysis
MCQ23:
In Bloom’s taxonomy of educational objectives, understanding what the facts
mean describes the __________ level
Answer:
Comprehension
MCQ24:
In Bloom’s taxonomy of educational objectives, judging or forming an opinion
about the information or situation describes the ________ level
Answer:
Evaluation
MCQ25:
In Bloom’s taxonomy of educational objectives, combination of facts, ideas, or
information to make a new whole describes the ________ level
Answer:
Synthesis
MCQ26:
____________ is a style of the presentation of content in classroom
Answer:
Method
MCQ27:
The following are factors that affect the teaching and learning of mathematics
Answer:
All of the options
MCQ28:
The following are advantages of the lecture method except:
Answer:
it promotes interest by giving the students a share in the responsibility for
the course and in search for knowledge.
MCQ29:
The following is a disadvantage of the Discussion method of teaching
Answer:
It makes more demands on the instructor as a group leader than as a lecturer.
MCQ30:
The following is an advantage of the discussion method
Answer:
All of the options
MCQ31:
__________ allows students to work through mathematics equations in a small
group setting.
Answer:
Cooperative Group Learning
MCQ32:
The following are fundamental educational principles which form the foundation
of all assessment that supports effective education except:
Answer:
Golden Principle
MCQ33:
3a-5b+7a = 3a+7a-5b is possible because of ______ Property
Answer:
Commutative
MCQ34:
(a+b) +c = a+(b+c) is possible because of ______ Property
Answer:
Associative
MCQ35:
a(b+c) = (ab) + (ac) is possible because of ______ Property
Answer:
Distributive
FBQ1:
One of the main goals of Primary mathematics is to help students acquire basic
skills in ___________
Answer:
Numeracy
FBQ2:
Teaching mathematics at the Primary level is to help students to acquire the
ability to interpret graphs and arrangements of numerical data. TRUE or FALSE?
Answer:
TRUE
FBQ3:
The revised National Mathematics Curriculum for Basic Education in Nigeria is
focused on giving children the opportunity to acquire communication skill
necessary to function in an information age. TRUE or FALSE.
Answer:
FALSE
FBQ4:
The six (6) themes in the revised mathematics curriculum are: Number and
Numeration, Basic Operations, Measurement, Algebraic Process, Geometry and
Mensuration and Statics and Dynamics. TRUE or FALSE.
Answer:
FALSE
FBQ5:
The concrete level of understanding is the most basic level of mathematical
understanding. TRUE or FALSE?
Answer:
TRUE
FBQ6:
The general types of mathematics manipulatives are Discrete and ____________
Answer:
Continuous
FBQ7:
Continuous manipulatives are those materials that can be counted. TRUE or
FALSE
Answer:
FALSE
FBQ8:
Base 10 cubes/blocks can be used to teach Place value Pictures. TRUE or FALSE?
Answer:
TRUE
FBQ9:
systematic and explicit instruction, self instruction, peer tutoring and visual
representations have been found suitable for teaching students with learning
difficulties. TRUE or FALSE.
Answer:
TRUE
FBQ10:
______________________ instruction, often called direct instruction, refers to
an instructional practice that carefully constructs interactions between
students and their teacher.
Answer:
Explicit
FBQ11:
CAST is the acronym for Center for ________ Special Technology
Answer:
Applied
FBQ12:
______________________ refers to a variety of self-regulation strategies that
students can use to manage themselves as learners and direct their own
behavior, including their attention
Answer:
Self-instruction
FBQ13:
__________ refers to students working in pairs to help one another learn or
practice an academic task.
Answer:
Peer-tutoring
FBQ14:
According to Kunsch, Jitendra, and Sood (2007),
Peer -tutoring works best when students of different ability levels work
together. TRUE or FALSE.
Answer:
TRUE
FBQ15:
CRA is the acronym for _______________
Answer:
Concrete-Representational-Abstract
FBQ16:
According to Piaget, in ____________ stage, Infants gain knowledge of the world
from the physical actions they perform on it
Answer:
sensorimotor
FBQ17:
According to Piaget, the _____________ operational stage commences at around 11
years of age (puberty) and continues into adulthood
Answer:
Formal
FBQ18:
rote memorization, recognition, or recall of facts describes the
__________ level of Bloom’s taxonomy
Answer:
Knowledge
FBQ19:
___________ is judging or forming an opinion about the information or
situation
Answer:
Evaluation
FBQ20:
Analysis is the combination of facts, ideas, or information to make a new
whole. TRUE or FALSE
Answer:
FALSE
FBQ21:
correct use of the facts, rules, or ideas is _______
Answer:
Application
FBQ22:
____________ is the understanding of
what the facts mean
Answer:
Comprehension
FBQ23:
What is the first day of spring is an example of a question testing which
cognitive level?
Answer:
Knowledge
FBQ24:
Innovations in teaching of mathematics can be diversified in terms of
_________, Pedagogic Resources and Mastery Learning Strategy used in
teaching-learning process.
Answer:
Methods
FBQ25:
For a science student, ___________ is the most fundamental subject beside the
English Language
Answer:
Mathematics
FBQ26: Mathematics
trains students in the use of __________ power rather than memory work and rote
learning
Answer:
Reasoning
FBQ27:
As the main goal in English Language is Literacy, ___________ is the main goal
in Mathematics
Answer:
Numeracy
FBQ28:
The National Mathematics Curriculum for Basic Education Programme span for a
period of _____________ years
Answer:
nine
FBQ29:
The Bill that mandated UBE was passed in the year _____________
Answer:
2004
FBQ30:
The first Mathematics Curriculum was developed in the year
________________
Answer:
1977
FBQ31:
A good example of spatial mathematics is ______________
Answer:
Geometry
FBQ32:
In selecting the curriculum contents and learning experience, ____________
approach was used in the current curriculum
Answer:
Thematic
FBQ33:
The contents and learning experience selected in Mathematics curriculum can be
grouped into __________ theme
Answer:
six
FBQ34:
___________ is the minimum qualification required to teach Basic 1 - 9
Answer:
National Certificate of Education
FBQ35:
Computational Algorithm such as those used in long division and multiplication
requires regular __________
Answer:
practice
PED234
MCQ1:
The Biological name for the plant is _____
Answer:
Havea brasiliensis
MCQ2:
Addition of Million reagent to a colloidal solution of protein which is heated
gives a __colour.
Answer:
red
MCQ3:
The yam slice or rice grain turn blue black in colour if a drop or two of
dilute_____ solution
Answer:
iodine
MCQ4:
Glucose is a useful raw material in the production of ____
Answer:
ethanol
MCQ5:
The resources whose stock are in continuous supply are called _____
Answer:
Renewable resources
MCQ6:
The refrigeration is a modern fashion of the ___.
Answer:
Clay pot
MCQ7:
The glucose formed is converted to____ and cellulose and stored in the body of
plants.
Answer:
Starch
MCQ8:
The nuclear processes of the sun produce a large quantity of energy which is
transmitted in the form of ___and heat waves.
Answer:
light
MCQ9:
An aspect of chemistry that deals with the study of interconversion of heat and
other kinds of energy is known as __
Answer:
thermodynamics
MCQ10:
Bitumen materials are also called ___
Answer:
kerosene
MCQ11:
Oil and gas provide about ____per cent of the energy used in the world
Answer:
75
MCQ12:
The oil shale deposits are usually rich in ______ materials.
Answer:
bitumen
MCQ13:
____is not a condition to determine if a reaction will occur spontaneously
Answer:
internal energy
MCQ14:
____is the energy in a body at rest
Answer:
potential energy
MCQ15:
____ is a device which converts solar energy to electricity.
Answer:
solar cell
MCQ16:
Burning of ____in power plants to convert chemical energy to electricity
Answer:
coal
MCQ17:
_____ involves process of changing energy from one form to another.
Answer:
energy conversion
MCQ18:
Energy conversion to a man-made process in which energy is made more____
Answer:
useable
MCQ19:
Energy available for doing work in a chemical system is ____
Answer:
Free energy
MCQ20:
There are main types of chemical____________
Answer:
3
MCQ21:
These are different forms of energy except___________
Answer:
chemical
MCQ22:
Wallace and Darwin made a joint
presentation on natural selection in year________
Answer:
1858
MCQ23:
The order Primate includes all except_________
Answer:
fishes
MCQ24:
Some endothermic processes take place
Answer:
Spontaenously
MCQ25:
Entropy is a measure of degree
of_________in a substance
Answer:
Randomness
MCQ26:
For every substance, as _______increases, the degree of disorder or entropy
increases
Answer:
Temperature
MCQ27:
_________ is not a condition to determine if a reaction will occur
spontaneously
Answer:
Internal Energy
MCQ28:
Energy available for doing work in a chemical system is_____
Answer:
Free-energy
MCQ29:
All chemical changes in nature involve____
Answer:
Energy Changes
MCQ30:
The ___________usually take place in chemical systems
Answer:
Chemical changes
MCQ31:
___________Involves process of changing energy from one form to another
Answer:
Energy conversion
MCQ32:
Which of these is not an evidence to support the theory of evolution______
Answer:
Photosynthesis
MCQ33:
Man belongs to a group of higher animals called ______________
Answer:
Mammals
MCQ34:
Current evidence suggests that the earlier set of organisms were_________
Answer:
Heterotrophs
MCQ35:
Geothermal Energy has been successfully utilize in the following countries
except in __________
Answer:
California
FBQ1:
Origin of life on earth has been accounted for by which theory ___________
Answer:
Mutational theory
FBQ2:
The only theory concerning the origin of life that appears scientific is -
Answer:
Theory of evolution
FBQ3:
The theory that God created the world in
4004 BC, from October 23rd, was propounded by _______
Answer:
Archbishop Usher of Armagh
FBQ4:
The theory of …………..has remained controversial because It cannot be subjected
to any form of testing
Answer:
special creation
FBQ5:
The theory of spontaneous generation was propounded by
Answer:
Aristotle
FBQ6:
The theory that certain particles of matter contain "an active
principle" which could produce living organisms under favourable
conditions is referred to as ___ theory
Answer:
Spontaneous generation
FBQ7:
All these belonged to the theory of spontaneous generation except
Answer:
Darwin
FBQ8:
________is the wise use of natural available resources in such a way that
wastage, loss and harm are reduced or prevented
Answer:
conservation
FBQ9:
There are________ main methods of
conservation
Answer:
three
FBQ10:
Iron is usually found in the combined state as___________
Answer:
ore
FBQ11:
There are ……………main types of chemical system
Answer:
three
FBQ12:
Energy available for doing work in a chemical system is___________
Answer:
Free-energy
FBQ13:
Some endothermic processes take place
Answer:
Spontaneously
FBQ14:
Entropy is a measure of degree
of___________in a substance
Answer:
Randomness
FBQ15:
For every substance, as___________increases, the degree of disorder or entropy
increases
Answer:
Temperature
FBQ16:
___________ is the heat content of a system
Answer:
Enthalpy
FBQ17:
Burning of ________ in power plants to convert chemical energy to electricity
Answer:
coal
FBQ18:
Main objective of energy conversion system is to make energy __________to man
Answer:
Available
FBQ19:
All chemical processes are associated with formation or breaking of _________
Answer:
bonds
FBQ20:
There is need to conserve and__________the natural resources
Answer:
preserve
FBQ21:
Energy conversion to a man-made-process in which energy is made more _____
Answer:
Useable
FBQ22:
Man belongs to a group of higher animals called_________
Answer:
invertebrate
FBQ23:
The energy stored within the structural
units of chemical substances is called________
Answer:
chemical
FBQ24:
__________ is a useful raw material in the production of ethanol
Answer:
Glucose
FBQ25:
The order Primate includes all except_______
Answer:
Fishes
FBQ26:
Which of these is not an evidence to support the theory of evolution
Answer:
Photosynthesis
FBQ27:
Wallace and Darwin made a joint
presentation on natural selection in ______
Answer:
1858
FBQ28:
Current evidence suggests that the earlier set of organisms were
Answer:
Heterotrophs
FBQ29:
The oil shale deposit is usually rich in ______ materials.
Answer:
Bitumen
FBQ30: Oil
and gas provide about ____per cent of the energy used in the world
Answer:
75%
FBQ31:
The refrigeration is a modern fashion of the ___.
Answer:
Clay pot
FBQ32:
The resources whose stock are in continuous supply are called _____
Answer:
renewable
FBQ33:
Glucose is a useful raw material in the production of__________
Answer:
ethanol
FBQ34:
The glucose formed is converted to____ and cellulose and stored in the body of
plants.
Answer:
starch
FBQ35:
An aspect of chemistry that deals with the study of interconversion of heat and
other kinds of energy is known as __
Answer:
light
PED235
MCQ1:
Clothing, shelter and ________ are essential in our daily life
Answer:
Food
MCQ2:
Textile fabrics which could be used by
individual,household linen is called
Answer:
Clothing
MCQ3:
What are made from animals,vegetables and synthetic fibres?
Answer:
Fabrics
MCQ4:
The process of making fabrics from textile takes how many main stages?
Answer:
Three
MCQ5:
Cotton plants grow in Nigeria and many tropical regions
Answer:
True
MCQ6:
Fibres can be classified into __________ groups
Answer:
two
MCQ7:
Natural fibre is wool obtained from fleece of sheep, hair of Carmel and silk
obtained from___________________of silk
Answer:
cocoons
MCQ8:
Artificial fibres are made by using chemicals and other materials such as wood
pulp and cool __________
Answer:
derivations
MCQ9:
Which of the following is made from cellulose collected from wood
pulp__________?
Answer:
Rayon
MCQ10:
Which of the following are soft, strong and can be produced in colours and
weight’s
Answer:
Tereylene
MCQ11:
Polythene and lurex are other man-made fibres
Answer:
True
MCQ12:
Which of the following is cool to wear, feel crisp and absorb moisture up to
40% of its weight?
Answer:
Cotton
MCQ13: Which
of the following is very strong and durable fabric and absorbs a little more
moisture than cotton __________?
Answer:
Linen
MCQ14:
Which of the following is mostly used during the cold weather and it is very
elastic?
Answer:
Wool
MCQ15:
Labels are tests which are means of identifying fabrics
Answer:
False
MCQ16:
One of these is smooth, very fine and warm to touch
Answer:
silk
MCQ17:
It has a rich soft appearance, absorbs moisture and it is a good conductor of
heat
Answer:
acetate
MCQ18:
Finishes are special treatment put on fabrics to make them look attractive
Answer:
true
MCQ19:
Finishing process which involves
cleaning and bleaching a fabric to make it look white is called
Answer:
Purification
MCQ20:
Treatment given to cotton fabric to give a glazed or lustrous appearance is
called
Answer:
Mercerised
MCQ21:
The Akwete cloth is produced from dyed,
spun and twisted cotton_________
Answer:
yarn
MCQ22:
Akwete cloth is made in Akwete,_____state
Answer:
Abia
MCQ23:
The middle finger is protected by one of the following while sewing
Answer:
thimble
MCQ24:
One of these is used for sewing,it colour and
material sewn must be the same or very close
Answer:
thread
MCQ25:
A sharp and very slender metal used to hold to hold material in position for
sewing is called.
Answer:
Pin
MCQ26:
A sewing tool used for cutting on fabrics before and whilesewing is called
Answer:
scissors
MCQ27:
Pinking ________is used for neatening edges of specimens and seams garments
Answer:
Shears
MCQ28:
Which of the following is used for piercing small opening for eyelets?
Answer:
Stiletto
MCQ29:
An instrument used for picking pins and needle is called
Answer:
Magnet
MCQ30:
Tailor’s chalk is available in different colours and __________
Answer:
shapes
MCQ31:
There are __________types of stitches
Answer:
four
MCQ32:
The stitches that are often removed after permanent stitches are worked on are
called
Answer:
Temporary stitches
MCQ33:
Another name for basting is
Answer:
tacking
MCQ34:
Running stitch means which of these?
Answer:
A permanent stitch worked by hand
MCQ35:
Fishbone stitch is used to draw the edges of a clean straight tear along warp
and left together before draining.
Answer:
true
FBQ2:
There are natural and ------fabrics
Answer:
Man-made
FBQ2:
Fabrics protect the body from ________ and heat.
Answer:
Cold
FBQ3:
Very important to maintain a decent and presentable appearance by wearing good-------.
Answer:
Clothing.
FBQ4:
There are various fabrics, natural and ------
Answer:
Man made.
FBQ5:
Fibres can be classified into --------groups.
Answer:
Two
FBQ6:
Linen is obtained form thefibre of a plant known as --------
Answer:
Flax.
FBQ7:
-----------fibres absorb moisture and dry quickly than most natural fibres.
Answer:
Linen
FBQ8:
Cotton is obtained from the fibres of the cotton bolls surrounding the -------
Answer:
Seed
FBQ9:
What is used for making glass and tea towels?
Answer:
Linen
FBQ10:
----------is made from various chemicals. It has the properties of wool but
does not shrink like wool.
Answer:
Terrylene
FBQ11:
Crimplene is another type of -------.
Answer:
Terrylene
FBQ12:
-------is not common in Nigeria but it is mostly used during cold weather.
Answer:
Wool
FBQ13:
Finishing process which involves cleaning and bleaching a fabric to make it
look white is----------
Answer:
Purification
FBQ14:
The Akwete cloth is made in Akwete, in-----State
Answer:
Abia
FBQ15:
----------------is used for sewing
Answer:
Thread
FBQ16:
Sewing tools are referred to as --------equipment
Answer:
Small
FBQ17:
What is used to protect the middle finger is called------------
Answer:
Thimble
FBQ18:
---------is made up of firm fabric and clearly marked on both sides with inches
and centimetres respectively.
Answer:
Tape measure
FBQ19:
Tailors use---------- with tracing paper to transfer pattern markings into
fabrics.
Answer:
Tracing wheel
FBQ20:
-------is used for cuttings on fabrics before and while sewing
Answer:
Scissors
FBQ21:
--------- is an instrument used for picking pins and needles
Answer:
Magnet
FBQ22:
-----is a thick, blunt needle of about 7.62cm long, with a large oval eye for
threading tapes, elastic or ribbon through casing or eyelet holes in fabric.
Answer:
Bodkin
FBQ23:
What is used for piercing small opening for eyelets is called-----------
Answer:
Stiletto
FBQ24:
Pinking shears is used for neatening edges of specimens and seams of ------
Answer:
Garments
FBQ25:
Clothing, shelter and ________ are essential in our daily life
Answer:
Food
FBQ26:
What is also referred to as basting?
Answer:
Tacking
FBQ27:
Uneven tacking or irregular tacking is also known as temporary stitch
and------------
Answer:
Tacking
FBQ28:
--------is a method of joining two or more pieces of materials together.
Answer:
Seam
FBQ29:
------- are provided in outfits to make them easy for wearing and removal.
Answer:
Openings
FBQ30:
There are ---types of seams
Answer:
Two
FBQ31:
------- are worn to protect our outer garments when we are cooking or working
within the house or in our workshop
Answer:
Aprons
FBQ32:
When cooking or doing house work , ------is tied on the head
Answer:
Scarf
FBQ33:
An ------is something extra, helpful, useful but not essential.
Answer:
Accessory
FBQ34:
---------is attached to a sewing machine in place of a regular presser foot to
form and stitch a narrow hem without tacking first
Answer:
Narrow hemmer
FBQ35:
Sweat glands in a normal healthy person secrete perspiration and oil through
the ---
Answer:
Skin
PED237
FBQ1:
The degree of agreement between measured value and accepted true value of a
quantity is called……..
Answer:
Accuracy
FBQ2:
The sum of measurements divided by the number of measurements that have been
made is known as………..
Answer:
Average
FBQ3:
Express 2980 in scientific notation
Answer:
2.980 x 103
FBQ4:
Convert 3.506 x 102 in scientific notation to decimal form
Answer:
350.6
FBQ5: A
system of units based on the decimal number system is known as……….
Answer:
Metric system
FBQ6:
International system or S. I. unit has how many basic units from which all
other units are derived
Answer:
7
FBQ7:
What is the symbol to represent Mass
Answer:
Kg
FBQ8:
In what unit of measurements will you measure the distance between cities.
Answer:
Kilometer
FBQ9:
Mass of an object is usually determined by weighing it on a………..
Answer:
Balance
FBQ10:
For scientists, the basic (SI) unit of time is……….
Answer:
Second
FBQ11:
The temperature of an object is a measure of its hotness or……….
Answer:
Coldness
FBQ12:
Temperature is measured by means of a………..
Answer:
Thermometer
FBQ13:
The temperature scale used in the international system is known as………. scale
Answer:
Kelvin
FBQ14:
The one in which the lowest temperature is given the value zero is known as……….
Answer:
absolute temperature scale
FBQ15:
Perform 600 F to Celsius degrees temperature conversion
Answer:
160C
FBQ16:
How many significant figures are there in 30.200
Answer:
5
FBQ17:
The procedure of dropping non-significant digit in a calculation result and
perhaps adjusting the last remaining digit upward is called………
Answer:
Rounding
FBQ18:
Ethanol boils at 780C under normal atmospheric pressureexpress this boiling
point on the Kelvin scale
Answer:
351K
FBQ19:
The mass of the substance per unit volume is known as……….
Answer:
Density
FBQ20:
The rate at which speed is changing is known as……….
Answer:
Acceleration
FBQ21:
Uncertainties are natural variations in measurements that come about for a
variety of reasons ranging from human to………..
Answer:
Instrumental
FBQ22:
Uncertainties in measurement are sometimes called..………..
Answer:
Errors
FBQ23:
The typical use of Spectrometer is……….
Answer:
Wavelengths of light
FBQ24:
In scientific terms, how many types of uncertainties do we have?
Answer:
Two
FBQ25:
The degree of agreement between individual measured values in a series of measurement
and the average value is known as……….
Answer:
Precision
FBQ26:
The use of equipment to measure a known quantity in order to determining if
systematic uncertainties exists in an experiment is known as……….
Answer:
Calibrating
FBQ27:
The lines that are drawn such that they can never meet no matter how they are
produced is known as……….
Answer:
Parallel line
FBQ28:
When two lines meet or cut each other, they form…………
Answer:
Angle
FBQ29:
When two or more angles add up to 1800 it is called……….
Answer:
Supplementary
FBQ30:
The degree of agreement between measured value and accepted true value of a
quantity is called………
Answer:
Accuracy
FBQ31:
When two lines make right angle where they meet each other, the lines are said
to be………..
Answer:
Perpendicular
FBQ32:
The triangle that has all the angles equal as well as the sides is known
as………..
Answer:
Equilateral
FBQ33:
The study of shapes and figures bounded by lines and curves is called……….
Answer:
Geometry
FBQ34:
Two or more triangles are said to be similar not congruent,when their………… are
alike
Answer:
Shapes
FBQ35:
A solid shape with a uniform cross-section is called………..
Answer:
Prism
MCQ1:
The degree of agreement between individual measured values in a series of
measurement and the average value is called……….
Answer:
Precision
MCQ2:
Express 0.000464 in scientific notation.
Answer:
4.64 x 10-4
MCQ3: .
Convert 3.506 x 10-3 in scientific notation to decimal form
Answer:
0.003506
MCQ4:
International system or S. I. unit has how many basic units from which all
other units are derived.
Answer:
7
MCQ5:
What is the symbol used to represent amount of substance
Answer:
Mol
MCQ6:
In what unit of measurements will you measure the height of 10-year old child
Answer:
centimeter
MCQ7:
The basic unit for measuring the mass of an object is the……….
Answer:
gram
MCQ8:
The temperature scale used in the international system is known as……….
Answer:
Kelvin scale
MCQ9:
Absolute temperature scale is the one in which the lowest temperature is given
the value………..
Answer:
Zero
MCQ10:
The most familiar metric system unit of volume is the……….
Answer:
Litre
MCQ11:
How many significant figures are in 0.009503
Answer:
4
MCQ12:
The procedure of dropping non-significant digit in a calculation result and
perhaps adjusting the last remaining digit upward is called……….
Answer:
Rounding
MCQ13:
A thermometer in a laboratory room registers 880F. What is the temperature on
the Celsius scale?
Answer:
310C
MCQ14:
One of the most important uses of density is to convert the volume of a
substance to the………..
Answer:
Mass
MCQ15:
Ethanol has a density of 0.789g/cm3, if the volume of a sample of ethanol is
39.7cm3. What is the mass
Answer:
31.3g
MCQ16:
The typical use of venier calipers is……….
Answer:
Length and diameters
MCQ17:
In scientific terms, how many types of uncertainties do we have?
Answer:
Two
MCQ18:
A line that run straight from top to bottom of paper or the planar or facing
the north which also runs north to south is known as………..
Answer:
Vertical line
MCQ19:
The line that run across the paper or straight from west to east is called……….
Answer:
Horizontal line
MCQ20:
An angle that is greater than 1800 but less than 3600 is known as……….
Answer:
Reflex angle
MCQ21:
An angle that is less than 1800 but greater than 900 is called……….
Answer:
obtuse angle
MCQ22:
when two or more angles add up to 900 is called………
Answer:
Complementary
MCQ23:
When a vertical line meets or cuts a horizontal line, it forms a _____
Answer:
Right angle
MCQ24:
A closed three -sided figure with three angles is known as……….
Answer:
Triangle
MCQ25:
The triangle that has no equal side and no equal angle is called……….
Answer:
Scalene
MCQ26:
A 3 – dimensional solid with six rectangular faces is called……….
Answer:
Cuboids
MCQ27: A
solid shape with a uniform cross-section is known as……….
Answer:
Prism
MCQ28:
A solid object having four faces, six edges and four vertices is called……….
Answer:
Tetrahedron
MCQ29:
A special circle that has two circular surfaces is called……….
Answer:
Annulus
MCQ30:
Any plane shape bounded by straight line segment is called……….
Answer:
Polygon
MCQ31:
A plane shape enclosed by focus line segments that is a four sided is
called……….
Answer:
Quadrilateral
MCQ32:
The degree of agreement between measured value and accepted true value of a
quantity is called……….
Answer:
Accuracy
MCQ33:
The act of determining the size or amount of something is called………..
Answer:
Measurement
MCQ34:
Write 0.0069252 numbers in scientific notation
Answer:
6.9252 x 10 -3
MCQ35:
Convert 4.834 x 104 from scientific notation to decimal form
Answer:
48340
PED261
MCQ1:
The modules prepared under the auspices of the National Implementation
Committee on National Policy on Education expects that teacher across the
country will achieve all of these except
Answer:
Teach different topics in detail
MCQ2:
Which of the following is NOT a benefit derived from using modules
Answer:
Encourages teachers to search for knowledge
MCQ3:
Which of these is NOT in the PSSS curriculum module
Answer:
Learning outcomes
MCQ4:
Pattern means an enduring method of ---- or ---- things
Answer:
Structuring, organizing
MCQ5:
Which of these is NOT an element of social studies content
Answer:
The component strand
MCQ6:
Building units of instruction around main ideas or concepts is known as ----
Answer:
The conceptual strand
MCQ7:
Developing units through classifying, categorizing, generalizing and similar
processes is known as ----
Answer:
The thinking strand
MCQ8:
One of these is NOT considered when planning a social studies curriculum
Answer:
Contribution to academic discipline
MCQ9:
One of these factors does NOT influence the teaching of social studies in
school
Answer:
Personal development
MCQ10:
Teachers are motivated to put in their best
Answer:
Presenting of awards to the deserving ones and Sponsorship of training
programmes
MCQ11:
McKeachie (1994) suggests the first step to developing a lesson plan as
Answer:
Determining the objective of the lesson
MCQ12:
All these are important for planning for a lesson except: 1) opportunities for
predicting possible problems, 2. A sign of professionalism, 3. Provides
opportunity of deal with time constraints 4. Identify what learners should do
at the end of the lesson
Answer:
1, 2, 3 and 4
MCQ13:
Which of these combinations is the right principle of lesson planning? 1.
Aims 2. Objectives 3. Variety 4. Flexibility
Answer:
1, 3, and 4
MCQ14:
One of these combinations is not part of the five-E model for structuring the
sequence of a lesson1, Elaborate 2. Explore 3. Engage 4. Evaluate
Answer:
None of the options
MCQ15:
The lesson plan outline is made up of these stages except
Answer:
Lesson evaluation and revision
MCQ16:
The teacher needs to understand the following developmental characteristics of
the learners to be able to be effective and also meet their learning needs.
Answer:
External factors
MCQ17:
Which of the following is not on Mel Silberman (1993) list of what students do
while learning is going on
Answer:
Come up with a list of queries
MCQ18:
Meyers and Jones (1993) basic assumptions on active learning are
Answer:
That learning is by nature an active endeavour and different people should
learn in different ways
MCQ19:
The method of teaching in which the teacher delivers a planned lesson with
little or no instructions to students is known as
Answer:
Expository method
MCQ20:
One of these is not an example of the oldest style of teaching for impacting
knowledge. 1) the act of telling, informing and instructing the listener. 2) it
is student centered. 3) it is teacher centered
Answer:
2
MCQ21:
Social studies is defined as common learnings of man’s interaction with his/her
social and physical environment. This definition is by
Answer:
SSSP (1971) and NERDC (1983)
MCQ22:
Social studies is all of these except
Answer:
Indoctrination and critical acceptance of beliefs
MCQ23:
Social studies focuses on man’s relationship with his ----- and -----
environment
Answer:
Natural, man-made environment
MCQ24:
Social studies include issues such as these with the exception of
Answer:
A persons way of life
MCQ25:
Social studies is not developed from one of these subjects
Answer:
Mathematics
MCQ26:
Social studies is one of the subjects that contribute to the attainment of the
following except
Answer:
National disunity
MCQ27:
One reason social studies was introduced in school is to reduce the influence
of --------- on children
Answer:
Colonial education
MCQ28:
What type of education is from birth to death?
Answer:
Traditional social education
MCQ29:
The main objective of the traditional social education is:
Answer:
To enable the child grow into functional member of a family and society
MCQ30:
The main sources of obtaining instructional materials for social studies in
primary schools are all of these except
Answer:
Resources in the packs
MCQ31:
The following is step by step tips in designing visual aids except
Answer:
Organize your information
MCQ32:
Dale Edgar’s research confirms that students are likely to retain ----- of what
they say and do
Answer:
90%
MCQ33:
A reason why teachers are sometimes constrained in the learning process is
Answer:
When they do not have materials to teach
MCQ34:
According to --------- “evaluation is the process of delineating, obtaining and
providing information about an educational programme which is to be used in
describing, understanding and making decisions”.
Answer:
Straton (1985)
MCQ35:
Evaluation is an assessment of one or more phases of the ---------
Answer:
Curriculum process
FBQ1:
Learning becomes easy when learners are in a -------- environment that is free from threat
Answer: conductive
FBQ2:
The theory of the cone states that people learn best when their experiences are
concrete rather than ---------.
Answer: Abstract
FBQ3:
The three practical instructional levels of the cognitive domain are fact,
understanding and -------------
Answer: Application
FBQ4:
The --------------- domain focuses on skill development.
Answer: Psychomotor
FBQ5: A
teaching method is a particular ---------------
Answer: type of instruction
FBQ6:
The type of lecture method where a teacher delivers a planned lesson to
learners with a little instructional aid is known as -------- method
Answer: Expository
FBQ7:
The activity method refers to the use of physical and ------ actions aimed at
stimulating creative expression and application of principles and knowledge to
solve problems.
Answer: mental
FBQ8:
Activity where learners practice skills in real situations is known as ----
homework
Answer: Real life
FBQ9:
The ------- method is not an effective method for teaching social studies.
Answer: Expository
FBQ10:
A method that is characterized by learner’s active involvement in systematic
and scientific steps, to find out about something is known as --------- method
Answer:
Inquiry
FBQ11:
The questions asked by the teacher who uses the ----------- will allow learners
to explore ideas.
Answer: Questioning technique
FBQ12:
A --------- is a formal discussion of differing sides of an issue.
Answer:
Debate
FBQ13:
Brainstorming is the process of spontaneously generating ideas or ----- about a
topic.
Answer: Information
FBQ14:
One way of ensuring effective learning is by making the ------- real for
learners.
Answer: Experience
FBQ15:
Instructional materials usually contribute to the ------- depth and variety of
learning.
Answer: Efficiency
FBQ16:
Learners retain what they see and hear by ---------
Answer:
90%
FBQ17:
The more materials available to a teacher, the more chances learners have to
fully understand the subject. TRUE OR FALSE
Answer:
TRUE
FBQ18:
Taking inventory of all resources in the school including library resources is
known as ------------
Answer: Stock taking
FBQ19:
Teaching materials help teachers explain ideas in a --------- way
Answer: concrete
FBQ20:
Pieces of paper or cardboard with words or pictures on them used for teaching
or reinforcing certain concepts and ideas are known as --------
Answer: Flashcards
FBQ21:
------- defined social studies as a discipline in which teaching and learning
of attitudes, values and skills overshadow the acquisition of facts and
information
Answer: Barth and Shermis (1950)
FBQ22:
Which definition of social studies may be considered as a standard definition?
Answer: NERDC
FBQ23:
Social Studies focuses on man’s relationship with his natural and ------
environments.
Answer: Man-made
FBQ24:
Social Studies was introduced into the Nigerian school system with the goal of
breaking down regional, ethnic and religious allegiances, in order to
--------------
Answer: promote national unity
FBQ25:
Nigeria experienced its first coup d’etat in ---------
Answer:
1966
FBQ26:
Members of the community mentor young ones to learn survival and ----------
Answer: economic skills
FBQ27:
--------- education refers to education, which Nigerians pass down to
succeeding generations as distinct from the western type of education
Answer: Traditional social
FBQ28:
The ------------- forms the child’s learning experiences
Answer: Entire environment
FBQ29:
The main objective of traditional social education is always to enable the
child grow into a ----------- of the
family and the society
Answer: functional member
FBQ30:
Social studies in its present form, scope and content was introduced into the
primary school curriculum in the ------
Answer:
70’s
FBQ31:
A pad of large paper sheets on a stand for presenting information is called
--------
Answer: Flip chart
FBQ32:
Learning resources that appeal to the sense of hearing are known as -------
Answer: Audio Aids
FBQ33:
Objects, work of art, relics that are used for teaching/learning because it
makes the learning experience real to learners are called
Answer: Artefacts
FBQ34:
A ----------- is a collection of documents that supports the teaching or
subject matter.
Answer: Resource pack
FBQ35:
What is the full meaning of OHP?
Answer: Over-head Projector
PHY103
FBQ1: A
convex lens is called _____________.
Answer:
converging lens
FBQ2: A
positive magnification greater than unity indicates ________________.
Answer:
virtual image
FBQ3:
_______ is formed through actual intersection of light rays and can be captured
on a screen.
Answer:
Real image
FBQ4:
Snell’s law states that the sine of the angle of incident and _____ have a constant ratio to each
other.
Answer:
reflection
FBQ5:
________ is defined as the distance between image and mirror.
Answer:
Image distance
FBQ6:
When the object is placed at the focal point of a convex lens, the image is
formed at ______.
Answer:
Infinity
FBQ7:
The study of wavelengths of the radiation coming out from a hot body is called
______.
Answer:
Spectra
FBQ8:
The angular magnification of a microscope in normal use is given by ___.
Answer:
1+(D/F)
FBQ9:
The ____________ of a lens is a point through which rays of light pass through
without being deviated by the lens.
Answer:
Optical center
FBQ10:
When light vibrates in a single plane it is said to be____.
Answer:
Polarized
FBQ11:
______ acts as a muscular diaphragm of variable size that controls the size of
pupil and also function to regulate the amount of light entering to the eye.
Answer:
Iris
FBQ12:
The type of spectrum formed by white light produced when a solid material is
heated to incandescence is called _______________ spectrum.
Answer:
continuous
FBQ13:
When white light passes through a prism, a spectrum of different colours is
formed. The colour that represents the wave with the least frequency of the
spectrum is _____________.
Answer:
Red
FBQ14:
Restrictions imposed on the free motion of a particle ( or a system of
particles) are generally called _____________
Answer:
Constraint
FBQ15:
The path along which light travels is called a ________.
Answer:
Ray
FBQ16:
The normal is always ___________ to the mirror.
Answer:
perpendicular
FBQ17:
Light travels in ________ lines.
Answer:
Straight
FBQ18:
________ are drawn on light rays to show the direction in which light travels.
Answer:
Arrows
FBQ19:
How many images will be formed in two plane mirrors which are inclined at angle
90o to each other?
Answer:
3
FBQ20:
___________ mirrors are used as rear view mirrors in automobiles.
Answer:
Convex
FBQ21:
The angle of incident equals to the angle of reflection. This statement is
referred to as _____________ of reflection.
Answer:
second law
FBQ22:
______ is the distance between the optical center and the principal focal of
the lens.
Answer:
Focal length
FBQ23:
The ______ of a converging lens is the point to which all rays parallel and
close to the principal axis converge after refraction through the lens.
Answer:
Principal focus
FBQ24:
When light travels from a fast medium to a slower medium, the refracted ray
changes phase by _________.
Answer:
wavelength/3
FBQ25:
Diffraction effect is more for a ____________ image.
Answer:
sharp
FBQ26:
The image formed by an astronomical telescope is _________.
Answer:
virtual and diminished
FBQ27:
________ are drawn on light rays to show the direction in which light travels.
Answer:
arrows
FBQ28:
In regular reflection, parallel light rays remain ________after falling on a
smooth and polished surface.
Answer:
parallel
FBQ29:
Light travels in ________ lines.
Answer:
Straight
FBQ30:
What is the refractive index of glass material for which the speed of light in
it is m/s?
Answer:
1.56
FBQ31:
An image formed by a plane mirror is _____.
Answer:
laterally inverted
FBQ32:
The central spot of Newtons rings is _______ due to destructive interference.
Answer:
Dark
FBQ33:
A simple microscope uses__________.
Answer:
one convex lens
FBQ34:
A compound microscope consists of ________.
Answer:
two convex lenses
FBQ35:
A triangular glass block, which may be equilateral or isosceles, which can be
used for refraction experiment is called the ______________.
Answer:
Prism
MCQ1:
Convex mirror is used in motor vehicle as side mirror because of ___________.
Answer:
Has a very wide field of view
MCQ2:
The SI unit of image magnification is ___________.
Answer:
No unit
MCQ3: A
beam of light may be ____________.
Answer:
Parallel
MCQ4: A
man has a concave mirror with focal length of 40cm. How far should the mirror
be held from his face in order to give an image of two fold magnification?
Answer:
60cm
MCQ5: A
diverging mirror of 0.5 m focal length produces a virtual image of 0.25m from
the mirror. How far from the mirror should the object be placed?
Answer:
0.5m
MCQ6:
Maximum deviation of prism occurs when angle of incidence is ___________.
Answer:
90⁰
MCQ7:
The refracting angle of a prism is 62⁰ and the refractive index of the glass
for yellow light is 1.65. What is the smallest possible angle of incidence of a
ray of this yellow light which is transmitted without total reflection?
Answer:
43.58⁰
MCQ8:
For a small angle prism, the deviation is independent of __________ .
Answer:
Size of the angle of incidence
MCQ9:
One end of a cylindrical glass rod of refractive index 1.5 is a hemispherical
surface of radius of curvature 20mm. An object is placed on the axis of the rod
at 80mm to the left of the vertex of the angle of the surface. Determine the
position of the image.
Answer:
120mm
MCQ10:
One end of a cylindrical glass rod of refractive index 1.5 is a hemispherical
surface of radius of curvature 20mm. An object is placed on the axis of the rod
at 80mm to the left of the vertex of the angle of the surface. Determine the
position if the image of the rod is immersed in water of refractive index 1.33.
Answer:
184.6mm
MCQ11:
A convex lens is __________.
Answer:
A converging lens
MCQ12:
The distance between the optical centre and the principal focal of the lens is
called __________.
Answer:
Focal Length
MCQ13:
The line joining the centres of curvature of the two curved surfaces forming
the lens is called _________.
Answer:
Principal axis
MCQ14:
When an object is placed at the principal focus of a convex lens, the image
formed is ____________.
Answer:
at infinity
MCQ15:
A beam of light of wavelength 550nm travelling in air is incident on a surface
of transparent material. The incident beam makes an angle of 60 degree with the
normal and the
Answer:
1.23
MCQ16:
When the object distance for a convex lens is greater than 2F, the image formed
is __________.
Answer:
Inverted
MCQ17:
Image formed by concave lens is ________.
Answer:
Virtual
MCQ18:
A pin is placed 40cm away from a convex lens of focal length 15cm. Determine
the magnification of the pin formed by the lens .
Answer:
1.67
MCQ19:
The spreading of white light into the full spectrum is called ________.
Answer:
Dispersion
MCQ20:
when a ray of light incident at an angle greater than the critical angle, the
phenomenon is called ____________.
Answer:
Total internal reflection
MCQ21:
Submarine periscope uses the phenomenon of ___________.
Answer:
Total internal reflection
MCQ22:
The ability of the lens to focus on near and far objects is called ___________.
Answer:
Accommodation
MCQ23:
Appearance of colour in thin films is due to________.
Answer:
interference
MCQ24:
The experiment that shows that wavelength of light is smaller than that of
sound is called_________.
Answer:
Diffraction
MCQ25:
Examples of transverse wave are the following except:
Answer:
P wave
MCQ26:
A compound microscope consists of two
________lenses.
Answer:
Convex
MCQ27: The
advantage of reflector telescope over the normal telescope is __________.
Answer:
Its large angle of magnification
MCQ28:
For two waves to superpose the waves must have the same _________.
Answer:
Wavelength
MCQ29:
Constructive interference occurs, when the intensity of the two interfering
waves is __________.
Answer:
Maximum
MCQ30:
________ are drawn on light rays to show the direction in which light travels.
Answer:
Arrows
MCQ31:
A ray of light passing through the ________ retraces its path.
Answer:
Centre of curvature
MCQ32:
The central spot of Newtons rings is _______ due to destructive interference.
Answer:
Dark
MCQ33:
A simple microscope uses__________.
Answer:
One convex lens
MCQ34:
Appearance of colour in thin films is due to________.
Answer:
Interference
MCQ35:
The study of wavelengths of the radiation coming out from a hot body is called
______.
Answer:
Spectra
PHY191
MCQ1:
In a simple pendulum experiment, 20 oscillations were completed in 50s.
Calculate the period of the pendulum.
Answer:
0.02s
MCQ2: A
body of mass 2 kg moves in a circular path with a uniform speed of 10 m/s. If
the radius of the path is 5m, calculate the magnitude of the centripetal force
action on the body.
Answer:
40N
MCQ3:
Which of the apparatus is not needed for the determination of acceleration due
to gravity g?
Answer:
Density bottle
MCQ4: A
simple bob executing simple harmonic motion has 2cm and 12Hz as amplitude and
frequency respectively. Calculate the period of the motion.
Answer: 0.083s
MCQ5:
The value of acceleration due to gravity
depends on one of these:
Answer:
Density of bobs
MCQ6:
The period of the body performing simple harmonic motion is 2s. If the
amplitude of the motion is 3.5 cm, calculate the maximum speed (π=22/7).
Answer:
11cm/s
MCQ7:
Which of the following is the best equation of a non-linear graph?
Answer:
y=ax+bx
MCQ8:
If the graph produced is a straight line, then the relationship is described
as____
Answer:
Linear
MCQ9:
Graphs showing how two physical measurements are related can be represented in
which form?
Answer:
Pictorially
MCQ10:
If y=mx + b, and y is plotted against x; what type of graph will be obtained?
Answer:
Linear graph not passing through the origin
MCQ11:
Relative error can be defined as____
Answer:
Ratio of the possible error to the total measurement
MCQ12:
What is the relative error, if the possible error is 0.05cm and measurement is
32cm?
Answer:
0.02
MCQ13:
The time taken for a given event is 7.4s and the possible error is 0.05cm, what
is the relative error?
Answer:
0.007
MCQ14:
Consider the following pair of measurements 40.0cm or 8.0cm. Which one is more
accurate?
Answer:
40.0cm
MCQ15:
Consider the following pair of measurements: 0.45m or 0.04m. Which one is more
accurate?
Answer:
0.45m
MCQ16:
If the diameter of hydrogen atom is 0.000000000106 meters. what is the
scientific notation ?
Answer:
1.06 x10^-10
MCQ17:
The mass of a water molecule is 0.00000000000000000000003g. Express in
scientific notation.
Answer:
3 x10^-23
MCQ18:
In measurement report, the non-zero digits are___
Answer:
Significant
MCQ19:
A digit is significant if and only if it affects ____.
Answer:
The relative error
MCQ20:
Multiply 1.23 by 2.3. Round off the result to more accurate measurement
Answer:
2.8
MCQ21:
Divide 2.1 by 1.54. Round off the result to more accurate measurement.
Answer:
1.4
MCQ22:
Multiply the following figures: 5.2865, 3.8 and 19.62 and round off the result
to more accurate value
Answer:
3.9x10
MCQ23:
Divide 9.5362 by 3.2 round off the result to more accurate value
Answer:
3
MCQ24:
Straight line graph show that:
Answer:
The relationship between the two variable are linear
MCQ25:
The major errors in measuring instrument are
Answer:
All of the options
MCQ26:
Human errors are based on;
Answer:
Judgement and perception
MCQ27:
The possible error in measurement is due to
Answer:
Inherent imprecision in measuring devices
MCQ28:
A measurement reported to one hundredth of a centimetre’s, such as 4.23cm, we
can say;
Answer:
It’s less precise than 4.2cm
MCQ29:
The temperature of two places are recorded to be 30.56C and 32.22C we can say
that they are___
Answer:
Equally precise
MCQ30:
The variables in the function y=Ae-kxare x and y. A negative slope will be
obtained if a graph of
Answer:
1n y is plotted against x
MCQ31:
Which of the following pair of quantities have identical S I unit?I. Force and
surface tension II. Surface tension
and spring constant III. Torque and spring constant IV.
Young’s modulus and pressure
Answer:
II only
MCQ32:
The inverse of the slope of graph of extension against tension in the spring
represents _____.
Answer:
Spring constant
MCQ33:
Specific latent heat of fusion of a substance is the quantity of heat required
to
Answer:
Change the state of unit mass of the substance at its melting point
MCQ34:
A piece of copper weighing 400g is heated to 100oC and then quickly transferred
into a copper calorimeter of mass 10g containing oil of unknown specific heat
capacity at 30oC. If the final temperature of the mixture is 50oC and the
specific heat capacity of copper is 390JKg-1k-1The heat gained by calorimeter
is:
Answer:
78J
MCQ35: A piece of copper weighing 400g is heated to
100oC and then quickly transferred into a copper calorimeter of mass 10g
containing oil of unknown specific heat capacity at 30oC. If the final
temperature of the mixture is 50oC and the specific heat capacity of copper is
390JKg-1k-1, calculate the specific heat capacity of the oil.
Answer:
386.1 JKg-1k-1
FBQ1:
Let the measured value of two Widths beThe error in the quantity W = W1 + W2
will be____
Answer:
0.014m
FBQ2:
______ is also known as determinant errors.
Answer:
Systematic error
FBQ3:
In an experiment involving vernier calipers, what kind of error is experienced
when the jaws are in contact, the zero of the vernier did not coincide with the
zero of the main scale?
Answer:
Zero error
FBQ4:
The error due to wear and tear of a particular instrument is called____.
Answer:
Back lash error
FBQ5:
Error not due to instrumental problem is _____.
Answer:
Observational error
FBQ6:
_____causes like parallax in reading a voltmeter scale.
Answer:
Faulty observation
FBQ7:
The type of graph equation obeyed if T2 was plotted against M of the equation,
Answer:
y = ax + b
FBQ8:
There are ______ different types of graphs in this course.
Answer:
4
FBQ9:
If W and V are related by equation, W= GVZ is reduced to a linear one, Z
represents____.
Answer:
slope
FBQ10:
____are due to causes which can be identified.
Answer:
Systematic error
FBQ11:
What is the unit of Mass?
Answer:
Kilogram
FBQ12:
When independent measurements are multiplied or divided the___ in error in the
result is the square root of the sum of squares of fractional errors in
individual quantities.
Answer:
fractional error
FBQ13:
Determination of acceleration due to gravitation using simple pendulum is
independent of the bob’s ----------
Answer:
mass
FBQ14:
The fractional error in the quantity____ is given by n times the fractional
error in B.
Answer:
Bn
FBQ15:
The error in the result is found by determining how much change occurs in the
result when the maximum error occurs in the _____.
Answer:
Data
FBQ16:
Data collected can be used to show____ between two physical quantities through
graphs.
Answer:
relationship
FBQ17:
Which type of motion is executed by a simple pendulum bob?
Answer:
simple harmonic motion
FBQ18:
____is defined as when an object moves to and fro in such a way that its
acceleration is directly proportional to its displacement and is always
directed to its equilibrium position.
Answer:
simple harmonic motion
FBQ19:
Materials that can regain their original shape after the deformation (change in
dimensions) are called____.
Answer:
Elastic materials
FBQ20:
When Ө is very small in simple harmonic motion then sin Ө = Ө in rad, acceleration,
a is proportional to____.
Answer:
displacement
FBQ21:
Holding relative density bottle with a moisture hand results to ____
Answer:
expansion
FBQ22:
At _____ position of Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM) the displacement of the body
is zero.
Answer:
Equilibrium
FBQ23:
What is the unit of the specific latent heat of fusion of ice?
Answer:
Jkg-1
FBQ24:
At equilibrium position of Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM) the speed of the body
is_____.
Answer:
Maximum
FBQ25:
The dimensional unit of time is___________________
Answer:
T
FBQ26:
When a mass is hung on a spring stretches 6 cm, its period of vibration if it
is then pulled down a little is _____.
Answer:
0.5s
FBQ27:
A mass (m) is hung at the end of a spiral spring of force constant of 200N/m.
If the spring oscillates with a period of 0.45 s when set in motion, the value
of its mass is ____.
Answer:
1kg
FBQ28: ____can be defined as the ratio of the mass
of water to the mass of an equal volume of water.
Answer:
Relative density
FBQ29:
Relative density bottle is also called ______.
Answer:
specific gravity bottle
FBQ30:
The dimensional unit of distance is _____
Answer:
L
FBQ31:
Glass is an example of ____ material
Answer:
Brittle
FBQ32:
____ states that the deformation of a material is proportional to the applied
force in the elastic limit.
Answer:
Hooke’s law
FBQ33:
When a material cannot recover its original shape, it is said to undergo ___.
Answer:
plastic deformation
FBQ34:
____is a property that makes the surface of liquid to behave as if it is
covered with an elastic skin.
Answer:
surface tension
FBQ35:
When you are taking reading from stop watch, you avoid error due to _____.
Answer:
parallax
PHY192
Question:
The intercept of a graph represented by <img src="@@PLUGINFILE@@/Picture1.png"
alt=""/> is the reciprocal of ____.
Answer:
Focal length
Answer:
f
Question:
<p style="text-align:justify">In an experiment to determine
focal length of a converging lens using the displacement method, a clear image
of an object was obtained when the lens was placed at 20cm from a source that
is placed at 80cm from a screen.
Calculate the focal length of the lens, in cm.
Answer:
15.0cm
Question:
<p style="text-align:justify">In a metre bridge, the balance is
obtained at a point 25cm from one end of a wire 100cm long. The resistance to
be tested is connected to that end and a standard resistance of 3.6Ω is
connected to the other end of the wire. What is the value of the unknown
resistance, in Ω?
Answer:
1.2Ω
Answer:
1.2
Question:
When seeking the “null” point, the key K should be closed before contact is
made at the point of balance. This is
done to avoid deflections due to ____.
Answer:
induction effects
Question:
Convex mirrors are mostly used as ______.
Answer:
driving mirrors
Question:
diopter is the unit of _______
Answer:
power of lens
Question:
In an experiment, derived values such as those obtained from four figure tables
should be recorded to at least ____ decimal places
Answer:
3
Answer:
Three
Question:
Which of the following remains unchanged when refraction occurs?
Answer:
Frequency
Question:
The slide wire of the figure shown is balanced when the uniform slide wire AB
is divided as shown. The value of the resistance X is _________________ .
Answer:
2
Answer:
Two
Question:
For a metallic conductor, Ohm's law holds provided _____ remains constant
Answer:
temperature
Question:
The lens of the human eye is ___.
Answer:
Converging
Question:
The advantage of potentiometer over voltmeter in measurements of e.m.f is that
it does not draw _____from the circuit under test.
Answer:
Current
Question:
A glass prism of refracting angle 60 degrees gives a minimum deviation of
47degrees. What is the refractive index of the glass?
Answer:
1.61
Question:
The null condition in potentiometer experiment shows that ______are balanced
Answer:
potential difference
Question:
The _____ of the eye plays an equivalent
role of the screen in optical experiments
Answer:
Retina
Question:
____ cell is preferred in Wheatstone bridge experiment, as its e.m.f. is high
enough to give the required sensitivity and its internal resistance is high
enough to limit the current to safe maximum.
Answer:
Leclanche
Question:
<p style="text-align:justify">A wire that has a resistance of
5.0 Ω is stretched out so that its length triples. Its new resistance is_____.
Answer:
15.0Ω
Answer:
15.0ohms
Answer:
15.0
Question:
If an object is placed at the principal focus of a concave mirror, its image
will be formed at:
Answer:
Infinity
Question:
An image that can be formed on a screen is said to be _____.
Answer:
Real
Question:
For a concave mirror to form a real diminished image, the object must be placed
at a distance greater than the_______.
Answer:
radius of curvature
Question:
A virtual image is always :
Answer:
upright
Answer:
Erect
Question:
No parallax tells us that the two
objects are______.
Answer:
Coincident
Question:
_____is the apparent motion between an object and its image, situated along the
line of sight, relative to each other in an experiment.
Answer:
Parallax
Question:
A 10 ohm and a 20 ohm resistor are connected in parallel to a current source.
What fraction of the current flows through the 20 ohm resistor?
Answer:
1/3
Question:
An object is placed 15 cm in front of a convex mirror of focal length 7.5 cm.
The image position behind the mirror is ____.
Answer:
minus5 cm
Answer:
-5cm
Answer:
-5 cm
Question:
<p style="text-align:justify">A glass prism is made from
transparent refracting medium with two refracting faces and a refracting edge
of the prism. The two refracting faces give _____.
Answer:
angle of prism
Question:
<p style="text-align:justify">A ray of light experiences a
minimum deviation when passing symmetrically through an equilateral triangle.
The angle of incidence of the ray for a glass of 1.5 refractive index is____
Answer:
490
Answer:
49degree
Answer:
49 degree
Question:
A resistor of value R/2 is connected in parallel with a resistor of value R/3.
The voltage drop across the parallel combination is V. The total current
supplied by the voltage source is____.
Answer:
5 V/R
Answer:
5V/R
Question:
Resistivity of iron is 10- 7 Ω-m. The resistance of an iron wire is 1 Ω. If its
diameter is halved and length doubled, the resistivity in Ω-m will be equal to
____.
Answer:
10- 7
Answer:
10^-7
Question:
To get three images of a single object, one should have two plane mirrors at an
angle of ___.
Answer:
90°
Answer:
90degree
Answer:
90 degree
Question:
How many images will be formed when two plane mirrors are placed parallel to
each other?
Answer:
One
Answer:
1
Question:
A person having the nearest distance of distinct vision of 32 cm uses a reading
lens of 8 cm focal length. The magnification of his reading lens is ___.
Answer:
5
Answer:
Five
Question:
The size of the image of an object, which is at infinity, as formed by a convex
lens of focal length 30 cm is 2 cm. If a concave length of focal length 20 cm
is placed between the convex lens and the image at a distance of 26 cm from the
convex lens, the size of the new image will be ____.
Answer:
2.5cm
Answer:
2.5 cm
Question:
If the length and diameter of a wire of circular cross section are both
doubled, the resistance is ____.
Answer:
Halved
Question:
A mirror has only one focus, how many focus has a lens?
Answer:
Two
Answer:
2
Question:
The thermistors are usually made of ____
Answer:
semiconducting materials having low temperature coefficient of resistivity
Question:
The resistance of a coil at 100 °C is 4.2 Ω. If temperature coefficient of
resistance is 0.004 / °C, then its resistance at 0 °C is ____
Answer:
3 Ω
Question:
The length of a wire of potentiometer is 100 cm and the e.m.f. of its standard
cell is E volt. It is employed to measure the e.m.f. of a battery whose
internal resistance is 0.5 Ω. If the balance point is obtained at l = 30 cm
from the positive end, the e.m.f. of the battery is
Answer:
0.3E
Question:
Which of these quantities remains unchanged when light passes from a vacuum
into a block of glass____.
Answer:
Frequency
Question:
Assume that a ray of light passes from glass into air at an angle of incidence
greater than zero degrees. The ray of light will be bent _____the normal as it
passes into the air
Answer:
Away from
Question:
A beam of light is incident on a perfectly smooth body of water. The angle that
the REFLECTED ray makes with the normal is _____.
Answer:
The same as the angle the incident ray makes with the normal
Question:
A five ohm and a ten ohm resistor are connected in parallel, the single
resistance "equivalent" to
this combination is ____
Answer:
3.33 Ohms
Question:
A five ohm and a ten ohm resistor are connected in parallel, the single
resistance "equivalent" to
this combination is ____
Answer:
3.33 Ohms
Question:
A current of 6 amperes flows through a 2 ohm resistor for 30 seconds. How many
coulombs of charge have passed through the resistor?
Answer:
180C
Question:
A 50 millimeter focal length camera lens photographs a 4 meter tall tree at a
distance of 20 meters. How tall is the image of the tree?
Answer:
10mm
Question:
An ammeter reads up to 1 ampere Its internal resistance 0.81 ohm. To increase
the range to 10 ampere, the value of the required shunts is____.
Answer:
0.09 Ω
Question:
An electric clothes dryer is connected to a 100-volt source. How much current
does it use if it requires 2,000 watts of electric power?
Answer:
20A
Question:
To create an enlarged real image using a concave mirror, the object must be
placed_____.
Answer:
Between the center and the focus.
Question:
A resistor of value R/2 is connected in parallel with a resistor of value R/3.
The voltage drop across the parallel combination is V. The total current
supplied by the voltage source is:
Answer:
5V/R
Question:
A 10 ohm and a 20 ohm resistor are connected in parallel to a current source.
What fraction of the current flows through the 20 ohm resistor?
Answer:
1/3
Question:
A steady current flows in a metallic conductor of non-uniform cross-section.
Which of the following quantity is constant along the conductor?
Answer:
Current
Question:
A galvanometer of resistance 100 Ω is converted to an ammeter using resistance
of 0.1Ω. It gives full scale deflection at 100 μA. The minimum current in the
circuit for maximum deflection is
Answer:
100.1 mA
Question:
A rigid container with thermally insulated walls contains a coil f resistance
100 Ω carrying current 1 A. Change in internal energy after 5 minutes is
Answer:
30 kJ
Question:
Which is NOT a characteristic of a series circuit?
Answer:
The total resistance is the sum of the reciprocals of the individual
resistances.
Question:
A charge of 3 C experiences a force of 3000 N when it is moved in a uniform
electric field. What is the potential difference between two points separated
by a distance cm?
Answer:
10 V
Question:
A 20 ohm resistor and a 60 ohm resistor are connected in parallel to a voltage
source. If the current in the 60 ohm resistor is one ampere, the current in the
20 ohm resistor will be:
Answer:
3A
Question:
A virtual image always appears:
Answer:
Erect
Question:
You want to put up a mirror at a blind corner in a building. Which of the
following will give you the largest field of view?
Answer:
Convex mirror
Question:
A small hole in a sheet of aluminum foil is used to diffract yellow light both
under water and in a vacuum. Which is true?
Answer:
light diffracts less in the water because its wavelength is smaller.
Question:
Which one of the following is the advantage of connecting two dry cells in
parallel instead of in series? It is because the parallel arrangement:
Answer:
Has half the internal resistance of a single cell
Question:
By which one of the following can a real image be produced? Can it be produced
by a:
Answer:
Concave mirror
Question:
When white light passes through a red plate of glass and then through a green
plate of glass which one of the following things occur?
Answer:
the light is totally absorbed
Question:
The number of free electrons per unit volume in copper is n. The electrons each
of charge q flowing with velocity v constitute current Ι. If A is the
cross-sectional area of the wire, the current density in the wire is
Answer:
n q v/A
Question:
If the change in resistance of a copper wire on stretching is 0.4 %, then its
length is stretched by
Answer:
0.2 %
Question:
If an electron makes 25 × 10<sup>15</sup> rev / s around the
nucleus of an atom in an orbit of radius 1 A , the equivalent current is nearly
____.
Answer:
4 × 10- 3 A
Question:
A light ray traveling from glass into air strikes the glass-air surface at an
angle 50 degrees to the normal. If the critical angle for the glass-air
combination is 42 degrees, the percentage of light reflected from the surface
is
Answer:
100
Question:
Electric current may be expressed in which one of the following units?
Answer:
Coulomb/second
Question:
A beam of light travels obliquely from one medium into another medium of higher
index of refraction. All of the following are true statements about the beam of
light EXCEPT:
Answer:
Its wavelength decreases.
Question:
Three resistors of 4 ohms each CANNOT be connected to give an equivalent
resistance that is close to___.
Answer:
0.75 Ohms
Question:
A mirror has only one focus but a lens has ____.
Answer:
Two
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