FACULTY OF SCIENCE 200 LEVEL
BUS207
FBQ1:
Listening carefully with the intent of attacking the speaker is known as………….
Answer:
ambushing
FBQ2: The
process of screening out parts of information that bores us or makes us
uncomfortable in a communication process is known as…………..
Answer:
selective listening
FBQ3: The
psychological theory which states that a person feels conflict if they hold two
or more attitudes that are in opposition to each other is known as…………..
Answer:
dissonance
FBQ4: The
method of memorising lists and organising them is known as………..
Answer:
mnemonics
FBQ5: A
symbol or combination of symbols used to convey emotional content in written or
message form is known as………….
Answer:
emoticons
FBQ6: Any
interference that keeps a message from being understood or accurately
interpreted is regarded as……………
Answer: noise
FBQ7: A
dialogue intended to produce an agreement upon courses of action, to bargain
for individual or collective advantage, to resolve disputes or to craft
outcomes to satisfy various interests is referred to as………..
Answer:
negotiation
FBQ8: The
process of breaking talks into steps, organised by time is known as………..
Answer:
chronology
FBQ9: The
first step in planning an oral presentation is developing a…….
Answer:
purpose statement
FBQ10: The
process of speaking to a group of people deliberately and in a structured
manner with the intention of informing, influencing, or entertaining them is
known as…………
Answer:
public speaking
FBQ11: The
letter that accompanies an applicant’s curriculum vitae is known
as………..
Answer: cover
letter
FBQ12: In
formal letter writing, the abbreviation RSVP stands for…………
Answer:
please reply
FBQ13: PP is the abbreviation for……….., which is a
Latin phrase used in formal letter writing to show that one is signing a letter
on somebody else's behalf
Answer: per
procurationem
FBQ14:
Internal communications within an organization is conveyed through……..
Answer: memos
FBQ15:
Writing is said to be……..because it can occur at any time and the process can
return several times
Answer:
recursive
FBQ16: The
method of drawing rough sketches to plan a picture book, a movie script, a
graphic novel or other fiction is known as……….
Answer:
storyboarding
FBQ17: The
technique of creating a visual web that represents associations among ideas is
known as……………
Answer:
clustering
FBQ18: Words
that carry the meaning or sense in a sentence is referred to as……….
Answer:
keywords
FBQ19: Words
are made from………..
Answer:
Syllables
FBQ20:
A…………..sentence encapsulates or organises an entire paragraph and often appear
at the beginning
Answer: Topic
FBQ21: A
complete sentence has a subject and a………..
Answer:
predicate
FBQ22:
A…………..is the most basic type of a sentence which consists of a single
independent clause
Answer:
simple sentence
FBQ23:
A…………is a grammatical and lexical unit consisting of one or more words,
representing distinct and differentiated concepts, and combined to form a
meaningful statement, question, request, or command.
Answer:
sentence
FBQ24: One
method of note taking common among visual communicators that allows them to
illustrate using a tree structure is known as………
Answer:
mapping
FBQ25: The
practice of writing pieces of information, often in an informal or unstructured
manner is known as:
Answer: note
taking
FBQ26: PQRST
is an acronym for a study method which stands for ……., Question, Read, Summary,
and Test
Answer:
Preview
FBQ27:
Communication among employees of the same level in an organization is called…
Answer:
horizontal communication
FBQ28: The
process of exchanging messages or information between two or more parties for
the purpose of promoting business growth is referred to as…………..
Answer:
business communication
FBQ29: Voice
qualities such as volume, pitch, tempo, rhythm, articulation, resonance,
nasality, and accent give each individual a unique………….
Answer: voice
print
FBQ30: The
context in which a communicator speaks is known as………..
Answer: voice
set
FBQ31: The
vocalized but nonverbal parts of a message are known as……….
Answer: paralanguage
FBQ32: The
study of the role of eyes in non-verbal communication is referred to as…………
Answer:
oculesics
FBQ33:
Gestures with direct verbal translations are referred to as……
Answer:
emblems
FBQ34: ………is
central to the construction, maintenance and transmission of culture, as well
as to cultural resistance and change
Answer:
Communication
FBQ35: The
communication between people involving the sending and reception of
wordless clues is known as……………..
Answer:
nonverbal communication
FBQ36:
……………are specific body movements that carry meaning
Answer:
Gestures
FBQ37: When
an organization is facing a public challenge, or comes under threat, the
communication that is put out by the management is commonly referred to as………..
Answer:
Crisis management
FBQ38: The
aggregate perceptions and assessment by stakeholders including employees of an
organisation’s ability to fulfil their expectations is known as………….
Answer:
organizational reputation
FBQ39:
………….is the reality and uniqueness of an organisation, which is integrally
related to its external and internal image and reputation through corporate
communication
Answer:
Corporate Identity
FBQ40: The
set of activities involved in managing and orchestrating all internal and
external communications aimed at engaging employees and stakeholders on which
an organization depends is known as…………….
Answer:
corporate communication
FBQ41:
Communication…..is the notion that an individual's or group's behavior are
governed by their morals which in turn affects communication
Answer:
Ethics
FBQ42: The
live exchange and mass articulation of information among several persons and
machines remote from one another but linked by a telecommunications system is
known as………..
Answer:
teleconference
FBQ43:
………..is understood through such indicators as direction of lean, body
orientation, arm position, and body openness
Answer:
Posture
FBQ44: In a
communication process………can be used to determine a communicator’s degree of
attention or involvement
Answer:
posture
FBQ45: The
study of body movements, facial expressions, and gestures in a communication
process is known as ……………
Answer:
Kinesics
FBQ46: Space
in non-verbal communication may be divided into four main categories: intimate,
personal, public, and …….. space
Answer:
Social
FBQ47: …… is
the study of the use of time in non-verbal communication
Answer:
Chronemics
FBQ48: The
study of how people use and perceive the physical space around them is known
as…..
Answer:
proxemics
FBQ49: The
process of communicating through sending and receiving wordless messages is
known as……………
Answer:
non-verbal communication
FBQ50: A…….is
an organizational structure where every entity in the organization, except one,
is subordinate to a single other entity
Answer:
hierarchical organization
MCQ1: The
imparting or interchange of thoughts, opinions, or information by speech,
writing, or signs is known as?
Answer:
Communication
MCQ2:
Communication is commonly perceived as a:
Answer:
One-way process
MCQ3: The
following are common barriers to successful communication except:
Answer:
Structure
MCQ4: The
collection of rules and conventions that govern the composition of sentences in
any given natural language is known as:
Answer:
Grammar
MCQ5: In the
sentence note taking method, every new thought is written as:
Answer: A new
line
MCQ6: The
‘R’s in SQ3R study skill stand for:
Answer: Read,
Recite and Review
MCQ7: The
form of note taking that uses graphic organizers and diagrams to organize
information is known as:
Answer: Mapping
MCQ8: The
mere exchange of words between two or more parties is regarded as:
Answer:
Conversation
MCQ9: The
following are types of paralinguistic symbols except:
Answer: Vocal
synthesisers
MCQ10:
Paralinguistic symbols concerned with momentary variations in the manner in
which verbal symbols are presented (e.g., volume, force, pitch) are known as:
Answer: Vocal
qualifiers
MCQ11: Sounds
that can stand alone as symbols because they can be interpreted as having a
specific meaning are known as:
Answer: Vocal
characterizers
MCQ12: Sounds
that regulate the flow of verbal conversation is known as:
Answer: Vocal
segregates
MCQ13: Body
movements that facilitate the release of tension, stress, or anxiety is known
as:
Answer:
Adaptors
MCQ14: The
following are qualities of effective feedback except:
Answer:
Political correctness
MCQ15: The
principle that people are drawn towards persons and things they like, evaluate
highly, and prefer; and they avoid or move away from things they dislike,
evaluate negatively, or do not prefer is known as:
Answer:
Immediacy principle
MCQ16: The
context in which a speaker speaks is known as:
Answer: Voice
set
MCQ17: The
use of space and distance within communication is known as:
Answer:
Proxemics
MCQ18: The
study of how time affects communication is known as:
Answer:
Chronemics
MCQ19: The
study of paralanguage, which includes the vocal qualities that go along with
verbal messages, such as pitch, volume, rate, vocal quality, and verbal fillers
is known as:
Answer: Vocalics
MCQ20: The
most common type of gesture which are used to illustrate the verbal message
they accompany are known as
Answer:
Illustrators
MCQ21:
Gestures that have a specific agreed-on meaning are known as:
Answer:
Emblems
MCQ22: The
main types of gesture include the following except:
Answer: Amber
MCQ23: What
is the term for the psychological distance between communicators which includes
eye contact, smiling, vocal expressiveness, physical proximity etc.
Answer:
Immediacy
MCQ24: The
physical distance between communicators indicates:
Answer: The
type of relationship they have
MCQ25: For
the purposes of understanding how different people communicate non-verbally,
Edward Hall separated cultures into two basic categories:
Answer:
Contact and non-contact cultures
MCQ26: The
personal space, or “bubble,” that one maintains around their person in
non-verbal communication is known as:
Answer: Body
territory
MCQ27: The
following are kinds of territories in proxemics except:
Answer:
Private territory
MCQ28: The
following are types of distances communicators keep except:
Answer:
Private
MCQ29: The
study of the way in which certain body movements and gestures serve as a form
of non-verbal communication is known as:
Answer:
Kinesics
MCQ30: The
following are non-verbal communication theories except:
Answer:
Kinetics
MCQ31: The
phrase or sentence that has meaning (vocabulary) and structure (grammar)
is known as a:
Answer:
Locution
MCQ32: The
following are illocutionary/perlocutionary points except:
Answer:
Constitutives
MCQ33: The
two types of locutionary act are:
Answer:
Propositional and utterance acts
MCQ34: Speech
acts that have an effect on the feelings, thoughts or actions of either the
speaker or the listener is known as:
Answer:
Perlocutionary act
MCQ35:
Communication contexts include the following except:
Answer:
Private communication
MCQ36: The
first major context within the field of communication is:
Answer:
Intrapersonal communication
MCQ37: The
utterance of sounds that have sense and reference and therefore meaning is
known as a:
Answer:
Locutionary act
MCQ38: The
theory of language that says that our utterances aren’t just about words and
their dictionary definitions.
Answer:
Speech act theory
MCQ39: The
distance between communicators interacting with each will depend on the
following factors except:
Answer:
Music
MCQ40: Which
of the following is a type of space in non-verbal communication?
Answer: All
of the options
MCQ41: Which
of the following factors are capable of influencing the behaviour of
communicators during an interaction?
Answer: All
of the options
MCQ42: The
overall assessment of an organisation by its stakeholders is known as:
Answer:
Reputation
MCQ43: The
reality and uniqueness of an organisation, which is integrally related to its
external and internal image and reputation through corporate communication is
known as:
Answer:
Corporate identity
MCQ44: A
dialogue intended to produce an agreement upon courses of action, to bargain
for individual or collective advantage, to resolve disputes or to craft
outcomes to satisfy various interests is referred to as:
Answer:
Negotiation
MCQ45: The
following are principles of interpersonal communication except:
Answer:
Interpersonal communication is rigid
MCQ46: The
common fear of public speaking is called
Answer:
Glossophobia
MCQ47: The
writing process is seen as consisting the following steps except:
Answer:
Storing
MCQ48: Words
that have exactly the same sound (pronunciation) but different meanings and
(usually) spelling is known as:
Answer:
Homophones
MCQ49: The
science of the sounds of human speech is known as:
Answer:
Phonetics
MCQ50:
“Although my friend invited me to a party, I do not want to go”; what type of
sentence is this?
Answer:
Complex sentence
MKT108
FBQ1:
Marketing is a very exciting field which requires a great deal of ______ to be
successful in it
Answer:
Creativity
FBQ2:
Knowledge about marketing decisions and processes will improve _____________
Answer:
competences
FBQ3: ____ is
the business process by which products are matched with markets and through
which transfer of ownership is effected.
Answer:
Marketing
FBQ4: The
most basic concept underlying marketing is that of ________
Answer: Human
needs
FBQ5: They are desires for specific satisfaction of
deeper needs ____
Answer: Human
wants
FBQ6: When
backed by purchasing power, wants become___________
Answer:
demands
FBQ7:
_____________ is anything that can be offered to someone to satisfy a need or
want
Answer:
Product
FBQ8:
Marketing takes place when people decide to satisfy needs and wants through
____________
Answer:
Exchange
FBQ9:
_________ is a set of all actual and potential buyers of a product and service
Answer:
Market
FBQ10: ____
is someone seeking a resource from someone else, and willing to offer something
of value in exchange
Answer:
Maketer
FBQ11: In
____________era there was manufacturing of goods and services, but below the
expected demands.
Answer:
manufacturing
FBQ12: ____
wrote on monopolistic economy.
Answer:
Professor Joe Robinson
FBQ13: ____
came up due to the failure of the marketing concept.
Answer:
Consumerism
FBQ14: ____
states that marketing department is so complex that it can’t be handled by a
single individual.
Answer: Peter
Drucker
FBQ15:
Industrial goods can be grouped into three namely- materials and parts,
_______, and supplies and services
Answer:
Capital items
FBQ16: ____
are goods bought by individuals and organisations for further processing or for
use in conducting a business.
Answer:
Industrial
FBQ17:
____________ gives focus on the nature, evolution, and functions of particular
institutions and various facilitating agencies.
Answer: The
institutional approach
FBQ18: In new
companies, managers are sometimes so busy they have no time for ____
Answer:
Planning
FBQ19: ____ is an approach which focuses on social
contributions and costs created by various marketing activities and
institutions.
Answer: The
social approach
FBQ20: Those
goods that buyers, normally, do not think of buying are called ____
Answer:
Unsought goods
FBQ21: ____
is a marketing concept which holds that no company can operate in every market
and satisfy every need; nor can it do a good job within one broad market.
Answer:
Market focus
FBQ22:
Marketing executives do not have control over____________; but these variables
can be influenced by business activities
Answer:
External variables
FBQ23: In
recession period, consumers have less ________________
Answer:
Purchasing power
FBQ24: ____
is the statistical study of human population and its characteristics-in terms
of distribution.
Answer:
Demography
FBQ25: The
suit business would hardly survive in northern Nigeria due to their
________orientation.
Answer:
Cultural
FBQ26:
Marketing managers should not have a good working knowledge of the major laws
protecting competition, consumers and society. TRUE OR FALSE?
Answer: FALSE
FBQ27:
Consumers are interested in the _______change, because they use it to determine
the value of the item bought
Answer: Price
FBQ28:
______is usually the communication tool employed by marketers to inform people
or the market about availability of products/services offered into the markets.
Answer:
Promotion
FBQ29:
________is a marketing function concerned with setting certain standards /
levels to accomplish the produced goods.
Answer:
Standardisation and grading
FBQ30: The
fundamental service or benefit that the customer is really buying is
called ____
Answer: Core
benefits
FBQ31:
_______are standardised products and services, usually, of low unit values that
consumers wish to buy immediately the needs arise and with little buying
efforts.
Answer: Convenience
Products
FBQ32: ____
are products that the buyers are willing to wait until the right ones are
available before they buy them
Answer:
Specialty
FBQ33:
Clothing, household appliances, furniture are examples of ____ goods.
Answer:
Shopping
FBQ34:
Products like typewriters, hand tools, filing cabinets, air conditioners can be
classified as ________
Answer:
Equipment
FBQ35:
___________are used to aid the running and maintenance of equipment and for
keeping the organisation and machines in proper shape.
Answer:
Consumable and Operating Supplies
MCQ1:
Marketing is a very exciting field which requires a great deal of ______to be
successful in business.
Answer:
creativity
MCQ2:
Marketing is a crucial human activity that is engaged in to satisfy economic
needs and ______________
Answer: wants
MCQ3: The
following conditions, except ________ must subsist for marketing or exchange to
take place.
Answer: There
must be limited wants and abundant resources
MCQ4:
People’s wants become ___________when it is backed by purchasing power,
Answer:
Demands
MCQ5:
_________________ is anything that can be offered to someone to satisfy a need
or want
Answer:
Product
MCQ6:
_________ wrote an article on ‘why people must segment their markets and
differentiate their products’
Answer:
Wanded Smith
MCQ7:
_______________ are not examples of consumer goods
Answer:
Durable Goods
MCQ8: Laundry
detergent is an example of __________ goods
Answer:
Convenience
MCQ9: The key
to customer retention is _____________
Answer:
Customer satisfaction
MCQ10:
Satisfied customers do the following except __________________
Answer:
Purchase products from the other company
MCQ11: Sales
people go beyond meeting the mere expectations of the customer; when they
________a customer
Answer:
Delight
MCQ12: A
____________company will track its customer satisfaction level, each period,
and set improvement goals.
Answer:
Customer-oriented
MCQ13: In
non-profit and public organisations, the major goal is ___________
Answer:
Survival and attracting more funds
MCQ14:
________concept holds that the organisation should determine the needs, wants,
and interests of target markets.
Answer:
Societal marketing
MCQ15: In
period of ________ consumers have higher purchasing powers and are more willing
to buy goods and services offered into the market.
Answer:
Prosperity
MCQ16:
Nations varies in natural endowments, for example some are rich in oil except
_________
Answer: Kenya
MCQ17: The
firm’s market, suppliers and marketing intermediaries are classified
as_________ variables.
Answer:
Non-Controllable
MCQ18:
____________is often regarded as one of the companies’ offering which can
stimulate purchases
Answer: Price
MCQ19: ________ is not one of the intermediaries.
Answer: User
MCQ20:
____________ is a management strategy used to inform and persuadethe market
regarding a company’s products.
Answer:
Promotion
MCQ21:
Merchandising function is subdivided into ___________________
Answer:
Standardisation, buying, assembling and Selling
MCQ22: The
following are examples of auxiliary functions in marketing, except
___________________
Answer:
Warehousing
MCQ23:
____________ is not part of the Product planning and development.
Answer:
Product standardisation
MCQ24:
___________ is the key marketing mix variable around which all the other
marketing mix variables revolve.
Answer:
Product
MCQ25:
Consumer is not just interested in the goods, but interested in what
_____he/she will get from the goods.
Answer:
Benefits
MCQ26: In the
case of a hotel, such things as a bed, table, chair, bathroom, and dresser are
examples of the ____________ products enjoyed by a guest in the hotel
Answer: Basic
MCQ27:
Products that exceeds customer’s expectations are called _______products
Answer:
Augmented
MCQ28: In
marketing when emphasis is on quality, price, fashion, style; the product can
be classified as _______________.
Answer:
Shopping
MCQ29:
Personal selling and after-sales service is, generally, more important
for__________Products.
Answer:
Industrial
MCQ30: Most
new, recently introduced products fall into the __________products.
Answer:
Unsought
MCQ31:
Consumer products require elaborate _______________
Answer:
Channels of distribution
MCQ32:
Industrial products are sold through ________________
Answer: Fewer
outlets and directly by the firm
MCQ33:
Installations are major capital items that form the main assets of production
for firms, they are_________________before they are purchased.
Answer: Very
costly items that need major decisions
MCQ34: The
demand for industrial goods is mostly _________________
Answer:
Inelastic
MCQ35: In
Nigeria, most often, _____________________
Answer:
Buyers are always more than sellers
MKT205
FBQ1:
_______________ is defined as “Anything that has the capacity to produce the
satisfaction use or perhaps, the profit desired by the customer”.
Answer:
product
FBQ2: _____________ concept indicates that
consumers are primarily interested in product quality, and know the quality and
feature differences amongst the competing products.
Answer:
Product
FBQ3: ____ is
the creation, development and delivery of products and services that satisfy
the needs and wants of the customer, at a profit.
Answer:
Marketing
FBQ4:
___________concept believes that consumers can be induced to buy more through
various sales stimulating devices.
Answer:
Selling
FBQ5:
_______________concept believes that organizations, while focusing on consumer
satisfaction, should reconcile such objective with social and environmental
considerations.
Answer:
Societal marketing
FBQ6: ____
function is to provide logistics that delivers the products cost-efficiency on
a timely basis.
Answer:
Marketing
FBQ7: The
first step in the marketing process is ____.
Answer:
Situation analysis marketing
FBQ8:
Financial services are the economic services providers by the ________.
Answer:
Financial industry
FBQ9: The
term “financial services” become more prevalent in the United States partly as
a result of the Gramm Leach-Bliley Act of the late ____, which enabled
different types of companies operating in the U.S financial services industry
at that time to merge.
Answer: 1990s
FBQ10:
____________ is defined as those “activities”, benefits, or satisfactions which
are offered services for sale, or are provided in connection with the sales of
goods.
Answer:
Services
FBQ11:
Services often cannot be separated from their__________.
Answer:
Providers
FBQ12:
Financial institutions because it has the same nature of service must be
creative and ___________ to market needs.
Answer:
Responsive
FBQ13:
Marketing came into Nigeria banks after ____ not in form of application of the
marketing concepts but inform of advertising and after promotional concepts.
Answer:
Mid-80s
FBQ14: Since
no company can operate in every market and satisfy every need, there is need
for market ________________.
Answer:
Segmentation
FBQ15: Mass
marketing can also be referred to as ____________ marketing
Answer:
Undifferentiated
FBQ16:
__________ differentiation is often adopted when a company is faced with
competition.
Answer:
Product
FBQ17:
____________is a pattern of living adopted by an individual.
Answer:
Lifestyle
FBQ18:
____________is used when a new product is introduced into a market in which
there are no competitors.
Answer:
Skimming pricing
FBQ19: A firm
that uses ___________ sets a price only slightly higher than the cost of the
product.
Answer:
Penetration strategy
FBQ20:
_____________________is defined as the process by which marketing plans are
developed for products.
Answer:
Marketing planning
FBQ21: ____
is concerned principally with making the product available at the desired time
and place.
Answer:
Distribution strategy
FBQ22:
________________ should be done in such a way that the brand name must attract
the attention of customers.
Answer:
Branding
FBQ23:
______________ refers to a short-term arrangement where both the buyer and
seller have an interest in providing a more satisfying exchange.
Answer:
Relationship marketing
FBQ24: The
source of new product can either be internal or ______________.
Answer:
External
FBQ25: The
word entrepreneur originated from the French word _____________
Answer:
“Entreprende”
FBQ26:
_____________ is defined as the process of using initiative to transform
business concept to new venture, diversify existing venture or enterprise to
high growing venture potentials.
Answer:
Entrepreneurship
FBQ27:
_______________ is defined as a person who makes money by starting or running
businesses, especially when this involves taking financial risks.
Answer:
Entrepreneur
FBQ28:
__________is defined as the act or process of growth, progress and improvement
within a physical setting.
Answer:
Development
FBQ29:
___________ is defined as referring to the process of enhancing entrepreneurial
skills and knowledge through structured training and institution- building
programmes.
Answer:
Entrepreneurship development
FBQ30: Any
entrepreneur is a risk taker. True or False
Answer: True
FBQ31: An
entrepreneur should always possess the _________and resourcefulness to achieve
objectives.
Answer:
Initiative
FBQ32: Market
segmentation is a ___________ philosophy.
Answer:
Customer-oriented
FBQ33: Segmentation makes the choice of distribution
channels and communication channels becomes much easier. True or False_____
Answer: True
FBQ34:
_____________ involves dividing buyers into different groups based on social
class, life styles or personality characteristics.
Answer:
Psychographic segmentation
FBQ35:
Demographic factors are the most popular bases for segmenting customer groups.
True OR False ____
Answer: True
MCQ1:
Marketing is the creation, development and delivery of products and services
that satisfy the needs and wants of the customer, at a profit.
Answer: True
MCQ2:
Entities that are generally marketed include (service, goods, place, person)
e.t.c.
Answer: True
MCQ3: Service
industry include the following except___________
Answer:
Beverage industry
MCQ4:
____________is a visual representation or logical flow of your marketing plan.
Answer:
Marketing framework
MCQ5:
Societal marketing concept believe more in the present and future wellbeing of
the customers and the society.
Answer: True
MCQ6: Macro
environment include the following except_________
Answer:
Competitive environment
MCQ7:
Services are __________
Answer:
intangibles
MCQ8:
Intangibility of service gives customer the ability to evaluate competing
service.
Answer: True
MCQ9:
Financial institution includes the following except______
Answer: Hotel
industry
MCQ10:
Products of financial services industry are intangible and therefore cannot
decay, deteriorate, depreciate in value or in form.
Answer: True
MCQ11: Less than
any other financial services, banking requires, and customers expect a high
degree of confidentiality and honesty on the part of the bank.
Answer: False
MCQ12: Market
segmentation is defined as the identification and aggregation of individual
consumers coming from a homogenous population into groups.
Answer: False
MCQ13: In
mass marketing, the marketer offers one product or uses one blend of marketing
mix to serve____________
Answer: The
whole market
MCQ14: The
solution to the change in taste and buying needs can be solved through___
Answer:
Differentiated product
MCQ15: Target
marketing according to Adirika (1993) requires ___________ major steps
Answer: 4
MCQ16:
Geographical segmentations also include difference in consumption patterns and
preferences based on regions/zones
Answer: True
MCQ17:
Product differentiation can be achieved by varying the features, styles,
qualities, package, sizes and colours of products.
Answer: True
MCQ18: The
first step in market segmentation is to identify the current and potential need
in the market.
Answer: True
MCQ19: In the
modern world, the __________ manufacturer starts by ascertaining what consumers
want and what they are prepared to pay for it.
Answer:
Consumer-oriented
MCQ20:
Products must be________ constantly in the light of changing consumer needs and
environmental development.
Answer:
Modified
MCQ21: The
marketing mix for products equally applies to services, that is, the
traditional 4Ps.
Answer: True
MCQ22:
Pricing policies are the basic philosophies on which __________ of financial
services base their prices.
Answer:
Sellers or providers
MCQ23:
Creating awareness of a new service is not really necessary like new goods.
Answer: False
MCQ24:
________is the most widely used form of promotion in the marketing of services.
Answer:
Advertising
MCQ25: _____
becomes very important when trying to develop a close relationship between the
buyer and the seller.
Answer:
Personal selling
MCQ26:
Production is not said to be complete until goods get to the final consumers.
Answer: True
MCQ27: The
pricing policy that sets an arbitrary price to match competitor pressure is
called_____________
Answer:
Competitive pricing
MCQ28:
___________strategies are concerned with ensuring the prompt delivery of the services
to the target market.
Answer: Place
MCQ29:
Strategic planning is ______________
Answer: An
annual planning
MCQ30:
Marketing plan must be________________
Answer:
Comprehensive
MCQ31: The
unplanned life is not worth living, so says Aristotle. In the same vein, the
unplanned business or enterprise is not worth undertaking.
Answer: True
MCQ32: The
outcome of marketing planning is often__________
Answer:
Market plan
MCQ33: Bank's
marketing plan should not necessarily include proper identification of what
really motivates the customer.
Answer: False
MCQ34: An
organization corporate mission can be wide but not be too narrow.
Answer: False
MCQ35: Bank
deposit account are of ________ type
Answer: 3
MKT206
FBQ1: The
data gathered as a part of CRM must consider customer ……….. and data security.
Answer:
Privacy
FBQ2: The act
of acquiring, sharing, and developing
customer knowledge among employees for making profit for the
organization and customers is known as _____
Answer:
Customer knowledge management
FBQ3:
CRM horizontal processes refer to the
cross-functional processes like _________
Answer:
Product development
FBQ4:
________ is not included in the decision model that explains consumer purchase
decision.
Answer:
Social stimuli
FBQ5: The
role of children as influencers in a wide range of purchase contexts is known
as___________
Answer:
Pester power
FBQ6: The
features of customer relationship management does not include ________
Answer:
Customer purse
FBQ7: _______
can best describes CRM vertical processes
Answer:
Customer acquisition
FBQ8: CRM
information must be accessible _________for recognizing and contacting them in
the company.
Answer:
Customers
FBQ9:
__________ is not a CRM process
Answer: Trading
process
FBQ10: A
figurative term known as _______ is used to describe the cognitive and
affective processes of a consumer during a purchase decision
Answer: Black
box
FBQ11:
According to Akroushetal, (2011) Internal marketing is resulted from
interaction between human resource management and___________
Answer:
Marketing
FBQ12:
________is not included in the five generic cross-functional CRM processes
Answer:
Customer segmentation
FBQ13:
__________ is not an advantage of a customer-focused business
approach
Answer:
Product focused
FBQ14:
___________is not a price promotion tactics
Answer: Price
increase
FBQ15:
Business products classification does not include ______________
Answer:
Quality
FBQ16: __________is
the first stage in the customer purchase decision process
Answer:
Problem recognition
FBQ17:
Determinants of customer satisfaction does not include _____________
Answer:
Haggling
FBQ18:
Interaction management process dimensions does not includes ____________
Answer:
Interaction intelligence
FBQ19: The
reasons for the emergence of customer relationship management according to
Duran (2011) does not include_______________
Answer:
Customer behaviour
FBQ20: When a
customer makes a repetitive demand of the same product, such customers may be
described as being ___________
Answer: Brand
loyal
FBQ21:
_______ is not among the steps in Jim Sterne and Matt Cutler customer life
cycle matrix
Answer:
Potential
FBQ22:
Customer behaviour is not concerned about _____________
Answer:
Production activities
FBQ23:
Internal customers includes _________ in an organisation
Answer:
Company personnel
FBQ24: At the
customer-facing level________ is not part of the three CRM processes
Answer: Channels
FBQ25:
__________ is not an element to be considered during CRM software development
Answer:
Written agreement
FBQ26:
______is not one of the steps in Keller and Kotler (2006) four-step framework
for one - to-one marketing that can be adopted on CRM marketing
Answer:
Customer orientation
FBQ27:
_________ is not an aspect of customer relationship management
Answer:
Negotiation
FBQ28:
Customer responses does not include______________
Answer:
Demographic
FBQ29:
_______ is the last stage of the purchase decision process
Answer:
Purchase decision
FBQ30:
Decision role in consumer behaviour does not include____________
Answer:
Producer
FBQ31: ……….
processes refer to the hidden and non-facing processes in CRM
Answer:
Back-office
FBQ32: ………is
a vertical CRM processes
Answer:
Customer acquisition
FBQ33: The
tactics that can be employed by the firms to create customer loyalty does not
include……….
Answer:
Customer quality
FBQ34: Low
level involvement products is associated with ……….
Answer: Low
risk
FBQ35: The
branch of consumer behaviour that investigates the matching of a brand's
personality and the consumer's personality is………
Answer:
Self-congruity research
FBQ36: ………….
is an example of a front office process
Answer:
Procurement process
FBQ37: ……….
is not among the levels of investment in customer relationship building
Answer:
Advance marketing
FBQ38: CRM
implementation processes does not include……
Answer:
Merchandizing
FBQ39: The
extent to which purchase intentions result in actual sales is known as ………
Answer:
Conversion rate
FBQ40:
Back-office processes refer to the hidden and non-facing processes from
customers like………
Answer:
Procurement process
FBQ41: ……….
of setting up a CRM involves an agreement (and possibly negotiations) with a
CRM vendor or outside consultant regarding setup, services, and support of your
CRM system
Answer:
Contract Phase
FBQ42:
Guidelines to be considered during data migration does not include……..
Answer:
Calendar
FBQ43:
……...is not among the steps in CRM selection and implementation processes
Answer:
Departmental plans
FBQ44: …….is
not a factor to be considered when
contracting and licensing software
Answer: Work
Phase
FBQ45: The
feelings of anxiety that occur in the post purchase stage by a customer is
called…….
Answer:
Cognitive dissonance
FBQ46:
Benefits of customer service training programs to the organization does not
include…….
Answer: Price
insensitivity
FBQ47: The
small set of brands which a consumer pays close attention to when making a
purchase decision is………
Answer:
Consideration set
FBQ48:
Emotional response to the experience provided by, (or associated with)
particular product is ………
Answer:
Customer satisfaction
FBQ49: CRM
delivery processes include……….
Answer: Lead
management
FBQ50: ………..
is not a disadvantage of a customer-focused approach
Answer:
Increased referrals
MCQ1: ……….
processes refer to the hidden and non-facing processes in CRM
Answer:
Back-office
MCQ2: From
the options provided select the tool that helps a project manager to keep CRM
project on track
Answer:
Calendar
MCQ3: Which
of the following is not one of the advantages of measuring customer
satisfaction?
Answer:
Evaluate outstanding debt
MCQ4: During
training on CRM Software, one of the following is not important
Answer: Task
lists
MCQ5:
Guidelines to be considered during data migration does not include one of the
following
Answer:
Calendar
MCQ6: The
black box model is related to the black box theory of
Answer:
Behaviourism
MCQ7:
Consultants help CRM Managers in executing all but one of the following
Answer:
Paying salaries
MCQ8: The
feelings of anxiety that occur in the post purchase stage by a customer is
called
Answer:
Cognitive dissonance
MCQ9:
Measuring performance before and after the CRM implementation helps you to
calculate
Answer:
Return on investment
MCQ10: The
extent to which purchase intentions result in actual sales is known as ………
Answer:
Conversion rate
MCQ11: CRM
implementation processes does not include……
Answer:
Merchandizing
MCQ12: The
last stage of the purchase decision process is ……….
Answer:
Purchase decision
MCQ13:
Back-office processes of CRM refer to the hidden and non-facing processes from
customers and is known as
Answer:
Procurement process
MCQ14: The
role of children as influencers in a wide range of purchase contexts is
called……….
Answer:
Pester power
MCQ15: The
features of customer relationship management does not include……..
Answer:
Customer purse
MCQ16: The
tactics that can be employed by the firms to create customer loyalty does not
include……….
Answer:
Customer quality
MCQ17:
………..describes internal customers in an organisation
Answer:
Company personnel
MCQ18: ………is
a vertical CRM processes
Answer: Customer
acquisition
MCQ19: The
branch of consumer behaviour that investigates the matching of a brand's
personality and the consumer's personality is………
Answer:
Self-congruity research
MCQ20: A low
level involvement product is associated with ……….
Answer: Low
risk
MCQ21: ………….
is an example of a front office process
Answer:
Procurement process
MCQ22: ……….
is not among the levels of investment in customer relationship building
Answer:
Advance marketing
MCQ23:
Back-office processes refer to the hidden and non-facing processes from
customers like
Answer:
Procurement process
MCQ24: The
extent to which purchase intentions result in actual sales is known as ………
Answer:
Conversion rate
MCQ25: ……….
of setting up a CRM involves an agreement (and possibly negotiations) with a
CRM vendor or outside consultant regarding setup, services, and support of your
CRM system
Answer:
Contract Phase
MCQ26:
Guidelines to be considered during data migration does not include……..
Answer:
Calendar
MCQ27: …….is
not a factor to be considered when
contracting and licensing software
Answer: Work
Phase
MCQ28:
……...is not among the steps in CRM selection and implementation processes
Answer:
Departmental plans
MCQ29: The
feelings of anxiety that occur in the post purchase stage by a customer is
called…….
Answer:
Cognitive dissonance
MCQ30: The
five generic cross-functional CRM processes does not include
Answer:
Customer segmentation
MCQ31: …….is
the extent to which an interaction varies from and builds upon the preceding
stream of buyer–seller interactions
Answer:
Interaction consistency
MCQ32:
Determinants of customer satisfaction does not include………
Answer:
Haggling
MCQ33:
Business products can be classified into the following categories EXCEPT………
Answer:
Quality
MCQ34:
Benefits of customer service training programs to the organization does not
include…….
Answer: Price
insensitivity
MCQ35: The
small set of brands which a consumer pays close attention to when making a
purchase decision is………
Answer:
Consideration set
MCQ36:
Emotional response to the experience provided by, (or associated with)
particular product is ………
Answer:
Customer satisfaction
MCQ37: CRM
delivery processes include……….
Answer: Lead
management
MCQ38: ………..
is not a disadvantages of a customer-focused approach
Answer:
Increased referrals
MCQ39: CRM
primary processes includes………
Answer:
Logistics
MCQ40: Price
promotion tactics does not include………..
Answer: Price
increase
MCQ41: CRM successful
implementation steps does not include……….
Answer:
Product segmentation
MCQ42: The
five generic cross-functional CRM processes does not include……..
Answer:
Customer segmentation
MCQ43: The
duties of a CRM Manager includes ONLY……..
Answer: Synergize
with other departments
MCQ44: The
technique, adopted by a salesperson that an offer is limited, so as to force
the consumer to make a quicker decision, and therefore less time evaluating
alternatives is ……
Answer:
Scarcity attraction
MCQ45:
Customer retention approaches in customer relationship management does not
include ……….
Answer:
Adding managerial benefits
MCQ46:
………..is not among the steps in Jim Sterne and Matt Cutler customer life cycle
matrix
Answer:
Potential
MCQ47:
Customer behaviour is concerned with all the following EXCEPT………..
Answer:
Production activities
MCQ48: ……….is
the tool that helps a project manager to keep CRM project on track
Answer:
Calendar
MCQ49: Price
promotion tactics does not include ………
Answer: Price
increase
MCQ50: When a
loyal customer has repetitive requirement of the same product, such customers
may be described as………
Answer: Brand
loyal
PAD122
FBQ1:
---------- Psychology as a scientific discipline seeks to study the impact of
organisations on man and vice versa.
Answer:
Organisational
FBQ2:
Philosophers such as Socrates and Plato
speculated a lot about --------
Answer: human
behaviour
FBQ3: In the
past, -------- is deemed as the study of
the mind and mental life.
Answer:
Psychology
FBQ4:
Industrial/organisational psychology, also called-------, is a systematised and
specialised body of knowledge about human behaviour in industries and
organisations.
Answer:
workplace psychology
FBQ5:
Understanding human behaviour, from a--------- point of view, is the overall
goal of Psychology.
Answer:
Scientific
FBQ6:
------------- means adducing reason(s) to why people think, feel, or act the
way they do.
Answer:
Explanation
FBQ7: The
goal of --------- behaviour is underscored by the need to take decisions that
will be valid for now and in the future.
Answer:
Predicting
FBQ8:
----------are "doctors" who diagnose psychological disorders and
treat them using psychotherapy.
Answer:
Clinical Psychologist
FBQ9: ---------
psychologist applies psychological principles and theories in understanding
human behaviour in social setting.
Answer:
Social
FBQ10:
---------- Psychologists try to understand complex human behaviour by studying
the onset of a behaviour pattern and the orderly way in which they change over
time.
Answer:
Developmental
FBQ11:
--------- are Involved in criminology and legal issues relating to
investigation and prosecution of criminals.
Answer:
Forensic Psychologist
FBQ12: The
importance of man as individuals and group at work is the focus of
------Psychology.
Answer:
Industrial
FBQ13:
The --------- function is
one of the
main activities of
Personnel Psychologists
Answer:
Staffing
FBQ14:
---------- means the process of seeking and attracting a large pool of likely
knowledge, skills, talents and experiences for consideration for appointment;
Answer:
Recruitment
FBQ15:
---------- involve putting the right worker on the right job
Answer:
Placement
FBQ16:
----------- is to determine the core activities engaged in by workers; that is
the duties, tasks, responsibilities, working conditions and hazards and
assessment of human requirements of all jobs
Answer: Job
analysis
FBQ17:
Sources of recruitment are broadly
divided into
Answer: 2
FBQ18: ------------
on the other hand means determining among the so-recruited, the best possible
hand for the position advertised.
Answer:
Selection
FBQ19:
---------- are designed on different human attributes and the choice of test(s)
depends on attributes that are necessary for the job in question.
Answer:
Psychological tests
FBQ20:
There are -------types of
inhibitions
Answer: Two
FBQ21: The
classical conditioning approach was promoted by the work of -------
Answer: Ivan
Pavlov
FBQ22: The
---------- states that "in a given situation, a response followed by a
'satisfying' consequence will become more likely to occur, and a response
followed by an unsatisfying outcome will become less likely to occur".
Answer: law
of effect
FBQ23:
--------- view, human learning as influenced by multiplicity of factors such as
beliefs, attitudes, motivations, expectations and emotions.
Answer:
Social-cognitive Theory
FBQ24:
----------- is an internal record or representation of some prior event or
experience.
Answer: Memory
FBQ25:
Declarative memory are of------- types
Answer: Two
FBQ26: ------------ focuses on the job holder. It is
aimed at identifying the "training gaps" or skill deficiencies in the
job incumbent.
Answer:
Person analysis
FBQ27:
----------- is the systematic evaluation of individual employee with respect to
job performance
Answer:
Performance appraisal
FBQ28:
----------- is the job incumbent whose performance is to be evaluated
Answer:
Appraise
FBQ29:
According to Pattanayak (2012) ------- is inevitable for every organisation to
be healthy and productive
Answer:
Change
FBQ30:
------------ as a generic term embraces a wide range of intervention strategies
into both structural and
social processes of
an organization.
Answer:
Organisational development
FBQ31:
During------ stage, preparation. Motivation and readiness is created among
people to change old behaviour through creation of discomfort or lack of
conformation which may cause guilt or anxiety.
Answer:
Unfreezing
FBQ32: In the --------- stage, the client is
assisted to see things, judge them, feel them, and react to them differently
based on a new point of view using new role models, mentors and by creating
environmental scanning or new and relevant information.
Answer:
Moving stage
FBQ33:
--------- denote interdependencies and interconnectedness and interrelatedness
among elements in the set that constitutes an identifiable whole.
Answer:
Systems
FBQ34: -------- provide explanatory framework for
the relationship between variables.
Answer:
Theories or models
FBQ35:
--------- according to Eze (2004) is central and essential part of life.
Answer: Work
FBQ36:
-------- are built on Weberian bureaucratic prescriptions of rigidity and
tightly controlled structure.
Answer:
Mechanistic designs
FBQ37: --------- is the highest authority in dispute
settlement machinery.
Answer:
National industrial court
FBQ38:
--------- is defined as an enduring organisation of motivational, emotional,
perceptual and cognitive processes with respect to some aspect of the
environment.
Answer:
Attitude
FBQ39:
------- is triggered by need to respond to new challenges or opportunities
presented by the external and internal environment, or in anticipation of the
need to cope with potential future problems.
Answer:
Organisational change
FBQ40:
There are ---------- types of
inhibitions
Answer: Two
FBQ41:
-------- is an enduring belief that specific mode of conduct or end-state of
existence is personally or socially preferable to an opposite or converse mode
of conduct.
Answer: Value
conflict
FBQ42:
-------- mean interpersonal opposition that is driven by personal dislike or
disagreement between parties.
Answer:
Personality conflict
FBQ43: ------ is a well respected and trusted
employee who may be engaged to hear out parties and to attempt a resolution of
the dispute.
Answer:
Ombudsman
FBQ44:
---------- is the ability to sense how others are feeling
Answer:
Empathy
FBQ45: ---------- is an ability to be aware of what
you are feeling
Answer:
Self-awareness
FBQ46: The
------- is primarily engaged in research using experimental method.
Answer:
Experimental psychologist
FBQ47:
-------- tries to understand complex human behaviour by studying the onset of a
behaviour pattern and the orderly way in which they change over time.
Answer:
Developmental psychologists
FBQ48:
---------- involves putting the right worker on the right job
Answer:
Placement
FBQ49: In selection ------- is the opinions of
former employer(s) and or people of eminent status.
Answer:
Reference check
FBQ50:
-------- according to Naylor and Blum (2001) is a process that develops and
improves skills related to performance.
Answer:
Training
MCQ1: One of
these is NOT one of the notable writers of Industrial Psychology as a sub-field
of Psychology.
Answer:
Charles Taylor
MCQ2:
Industrial Psychology as an academic discipline started with the pioneering
works of Musterberg
Answer: 1913
MCQ3:
Industrial/organisational psychology is also called ----- psychology
Answer:
Workplace
MCQ4: The
overall goal of ----- is the understanding of human behaviour, from a
scientific point of view.
Answer:
Psychology
MCQ5:
---------- psychologists work with people of milderEmotional problems.
Answer:
Counselling
MCQ6: An
engineering psychologist is also called
Answer:
Ergonomist
MCQ7:
The -------- function
is one of
the main activities
of Personnel Psychologists .
Answer:
staffing
MCQ8:
Organisations need people periodically for the following listed reasons Except
one:
Answer: For
payment of low wages
MCQ9:
-------- is a deliberate effort involving serious and concerted planning and
budgeting to anticipate costs at every stage of the recruitment and selection.
Answer:
Recruitment
MCQ10:
--------- means determining among the so-recruited, the best possible hand for
the position advertised.
Answer:
Selection
MCQ11:
----------is suitably used where number of applicant is manageable.
Answer:
Preliminary interview
MCQ12:
-------is often done to clarify issues arising in the application blank.
Answer:
Second interview
MCQ13:
-------- is done to examine the physiological state and fitness of candidates.
Answer:
Medical examination
MCQ14: Naylor
and Blum (2001) sees ----- as a process that develops and improves skills
related to performance.
Answer:
Training
MCQ15: The
classical conditioning approach was promoted by the work of ------- (1849-1936)
Answer: Ivan
Pavlov
MCQ16:
In------- schedule, desired behaviour is reinforced after specified number of
responses.
Answer: Ratio
MCQ17:
--------- means reappearance of a previously extinguished conditioned response.
Answer:
Spontaneous recovery
MCQ18: The
behavioural psychologists theory that believes that behaviour is more than
simple S-R (stimulus and response) paradigm, rather thinking and interpretation
of stimuli – S-O-R (stimulus-Organism- Response) are bonafide part of the
learning process called
Answer:
Social-cognitive Theory
MCQ19:
--------- is an internal record or representation of some prior event or
experience.
Answer:
Memory
MCQ20:
Organisational analysis is a --------perspective, while task analysis is a
------ perspective involving a review of job description in which the task,
duties, responsibilities and condition under which the job is done is
highlighted.
Answer: Macro
and micro
MCQ21:
--------- focuses on the job holder. Its aim is to identify the "training
gaps" or skill deficiencies in the job incumbent.
Answer:
Person analysis
MCQ22: -------
is a process and outcome justified in terms of cost to the organisation
viz-à-viz adequacy or otherwise of budgetary provision, current and future
benefits to individual trainees and the organisation
Answer:
Cost-effect benefit
MCQ23: An
organisation is like a tune; it is not constituted by individual sounds but by
their syntheses. This is according to --------
Answer: Peter
Drucker
MCQ24: One of these reasons is NOT for performance
appraisal
Answer:
Improve Grape-vine
MCQ25: The
job incumbent whose performance is been evaluated is called-------
Answer:
Appraise
MCQ26:
-------is an appraisal method where raters is to assess job incumbents in terms
of selected objectives describing job behaviours.
Answer:
Forced-choice
MCQ27: An
appraisal method where Traits or behaviours are rated by attaching certain
numerical values is called.
Answer:
Graphic Rating
MCQ28: In
------- Performance is principally measured against results as derived from
well-defined work objectives.
Answer:
Management By Objective
MCQ29: One of
these is NOT an appraisal pitfall
Answer:
Imminent effect
MCQ30:
Organisational-----is a radical transformation in the functioning of the
organisational processes.
Answer:
change
MCQ31:
Individual resistance to change may be as a result of the following EXCEPT one
:
Answer:
Spouse denial
MCQ32:
-------- can be defined as an enduring organisation of motivational, emotional,
perceptual and cognitive processes with respect to some aspect of the
environment.
Answer:
Attitude
MCQ33: One of
these is NOT a components of attitude
Answer:
Affirmative
MCQ34:
Engineering Psychology or Human Factor Engineering is another name for the
sub-field of psychology called.
Answer:
Ergonomics
MCQ35: One of
these is not a Negotiation type according to Eze (2004)
Answer: Adhoc
MCQ36: One of
these is NOT an external method of resolving conflicts
Answer:
Reconciliation
MCQ37: A -------- is
ones particular area
of work within
a series of
jobs.
Answer:
Career
MCQ38:
---------- is a dynamic construct implying gradual growth, or increase or
advancement.
Answer:
Development
MCQ39:
--------is a lose-lose situation in which disputants are both physically and
emotionally detached not from
the problem but
from the processes
that will lead to resolution.
Answer:
Avoiding strategy
MCQ40: The
acronym ADR in Dispute Resolution means
Answer:
Alternative Dispute Resolution
MCQ41:
-------- entails putting elements tasks, duties, responsibilities etc together for the job incumbent to be able to meet
the goals and objectives entailed on the job position.
Answer: Job
designs
MCQ42:
Organisations now have formal ADR policies using various combination of
techniques such as all EXCEPT one
Answer:
Ombudswoman
MCQ43:
According to Kurt Lwine’s Model, one of these is NOT a model for proper
management of an effective change process.
Answer:
Stagnant stage
MCQ44:
-------- is NOT a type of change
Answer: Model
MCQ45:
–---------- is the ability to handle the
emotions of others.
Answer:
Social skill
MCQ46: The
------- applies psychological principles and theories in understanding human
behaviour in social setting.
Answer:
social psychologist
MCQ47:
-------- simply means the process of seeking and attracting a large pool of
likely knowledge, skills, talents and experiences for consideration for
appointment;
Answer:
Recruitment
MCQ48: One is
NOT an Internal labour market source
Answer:
Walk-ins
MCQ49:
-------- is used to determine the training needs of specific populations of
workers.
Answer:
Demographic analysis
MCQ50:
-------- attempts to identify the content of training, that is what an employee
must do in order to perform competently.
Answer:
Operational Analysis
PAD204
FBQ1: The …………………. first introduced the idea of the
‘polis’ meaning city-state
Answer:
Greeks
FBQ2: To some
………………. , politics is concerned with the ordinary day-to-day activities of the
community in which we are all personally involved.
Answer:
Authorities
FBQ3: It is
difficult to define politics because there are many definitions by
various…………………… that conflict or
sometimes complement one another.
Answer:
Scholars
FBQ4: More
will be said about ……………. Later when we
examine it as a topic on its own.
Answer: Power
FBQ5:
Politics goes beyond the activity of ……………. , the political parties and the
politicians.
Answer:
Government
FBQ6: "it was politics at the …………. level when
the Palestinian and the Israelites partly resolved their age-long
military/ideological confrontation over Palestinian home land in Gaza."
Answer:
International
FBQ7: The most crucial fact is how one defines,
much less measure, political power and influence the very substance of the
………… process.
Answer:
Political
FBQ8: "The development of Political science as
a discipline shows its attempt inenhancing its ………… status."
Answer:
Scientific
FBQ9: The reasons for this are uncertainty
and ……………… of the subject matter which political scientists
investigate.
Answer:
Unpredictability
FBQ10: We
tried here to show you that although there is no universally
acceptable definition of the word ……….
Answer:
politics
FBQ11: Neumann Franz (……...). Introduction to
Montesquieu’s Spirit of Laws.Translated by Thomas H. Nugent, New York: Halfner
Pub. Co.
Answer: 1949
FBQ12: Sabine, George H. (………). A History of
Political Theory. New York:Henry Holt.
Answer: 1950
FBQ13:
Behaviouralism was developed by American political scientists as an
Answer: 1940s
and 1950s
FBQ14: Behaviourists’ use more statistical methods,
on testing hypothesis than other
Answer:
political scientists
FBQ15: System analysis is an attempt by David
Easton, its originator to apply
Answer:
Theory
FBQ16: No modern society can exist without a system
of ………………..
Answer: Laws
FBQ17: The term is one of the most ambiguous and
fluid known to ……………….
Answer: man
FBQ18: Knowledge is said to be systematic when it is
organized into an
Answer:
Pattern
FBQ19: Political science is not an exact science
like the natural sciences because
Answer:
Physics or chemistry
FBQ20: Political science like many subjects such as
Economics and History
Answer:
Philosophy
FBQ21: “Coup
and Army Rule in Africa” is the idea known as the Managerial brokerage ……………..
Answer:
system
FBQ22: Once
in power, the military continues to see its primary function as moderating and
managing ……………
Answer:
conflict
FBQ23: No
military coups are ever the same, nor are the situations in which they take
place …………..
Answer:
identical
FBQ24: The
causes of military coups in Third World countries, and especially ……………..
Answer:
Africa
FBQ25: The
military often justify their intervention as being based on the national
interest baptizing themselves as ……………………. regimes
Answer:
corrective
FBQ26:
Military intervention has unfortunately become a permanent feature of Third
World ……………….
Answer:
politics
FBQ27: There
are reactionary coups which preempt a possible progressive civilian government
coming into ……………....
Answer: power
FBQ28: There
are also coups of a clearly reactionary character which aim at removing a
progressive……………....
Answer:
Government
FBQ29: The
present position of all African states is one of dependence on theWestern world
economically and …………………....
Answer:
militarily
FBQ30: Most
top military officers throughout Africa have been trained by …………………..
Answer:
Europeans/Americans
FBQ31: what is the full meaning of (AU)
Answer:
African union
FBQ32: What is the full meaning of OAU?
Answer:
Organization of African Unity
FBQ33: What
is the full meaning of (FAO)?
Answer: Food
and Agricultural Organization
FBQ34: what
is the full meaning of (IBRD)
Answer:
International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
FBQ35: What is the full meaning of (IMF)?
Answer:
International Monetary Fund
FBQ36: The General Assembly is the most important
organ of the
Answer: UN
FBQ37: Five members represent each member nation on
the Assembly during its yearly......................
Answer:
Meetings
FBQ38: The Security Council is the most powerful
organ of the UN. Expectedly, the five most powerful nations at the end of World
War
Answer: II
FBQ39: Structurally, the UN was designed as an
all-inclusive umbrella to accommodate all nations irrespective of size, power
and.....................
Answer:
Wealth
FBQ40: A conceptual understanding of international
relation is incomplete without international...................
Answer:
Organizations
FBQ41: International relations are as important for
states as domestic concern. Fundamentally, states seek to achieve two goals in
their relations with other states at the international
Answer: Level
FBQ42: It
must be clearly stated however, that state relations at the international level
is never unidirectional, that is, it is not solely ...
Answer:
Peaceful
FBQ43: Man by nature is a social animal. There is
always a propensity for man to associate with others. This flows from the
mutually beneficial advantages that such an associational, cooperative and
collaborative relationship confers on.....................
Answer: human
existence
FBQ44: The Nigerian civil service has been patterned
on the British civil service practice and......................
Answer:
Tradition
FBQ45: The system of administration which emerged at
independence was British in.................
Answer:
Character
FBQ46: The Nigerian civil service as the
administrative machinery of............
Answer:
Government
FBQ47: The organizational structure of a typical
Ministry is hierarchical with the Minister as the head (in case of the federal)
and
Answer:
Commissioner
FBQ48: Each Ministry is expected to deal with all
matters in respect of which it was.................
Answer:
Established
FBQ49: The Human Relations School taught that it is
necessary to relate work and the organizational structure to the social needs
of the..................
Answer:
Employees
FBQ50: Human relationists argue that by making the
employee happy, the organization would obtain their full cooperation and effort
and thus increase it’s.....................
Answer:
Efficiency
MCQ1: Political Science is the modern discipline
for the study of politics and political processes and the organisation of
the.......................
Answer: State
MCQ2: Ernest
Baker (1962:1) stated that politics is the process of making and execution of
governmental decisions or ...................O
Answer:
Policies
MCQ3: Harold Less well and Abraham Kaplan (1950)
defined politics as authoritative, allocation of values or who gets what, when
and how. Austin Ranany (1975: 35-38) maintained that politics is a process of
resolution of conflict in.............
Answer: Society
MCQ4: For Max
Weber, (1947:145-154) politics is the operation of the state and
its................
Answer:
Institutions
MCQ5:
Politics goes beyond the activity of government, the political parties and the
...........
Answer:
Politicians
MCQ6: It was
the work of these two philosophers that imposed a restricted definition of
politics on political
Answer:
Scientists
MCQ7: In the
mid-nineteenth century, Darwin’s theory of evolution and natural selection
began to exert a powerful influence upon political
Answer: Science
MCQ8: The
advent of World War II brought about a re-think by political scientist that
............
Answer:
Legislature
MCQ9:
Political scientists in America and Europe embarked on new fields of study by
examining the political parties, interest groups, trade unions, as well as
corporations and church .....................
Answer: organizations
MCQ10: Pure
science is concerned with obtaining accurate knowledge about the structure and
behaviour of the physical..................
Answer:
Universe
MCQ11:
Political science is not and cannot be an exact science in the sense of the
natural sciences like physics, chemistry,................ , etc
Answer: Geology
MCQ12:
Political science like other social sciences has a scientific character because
of the scientific method it employ in examining
Answer:
Phenomena
MCQ13:
Political science like many subjects such as Economics and History were once
part of ......................
Answer:
Philosophy
MCQ14: We all
know that every political act implies underlying political value. Thus, from
Plato to early ................
Answer: 20th
century
MCQ15:
Political philosophy was concerned with the values that were regarded as
essential for the good citizen and a just .................
Answer: State
MCQ16:
Political science is also concerned with the behaviour of administrators
themselves at all levels of the bureaucratic administrators themselves at all
levels of the bureaucratic..............
Answer:
Hierarchy
MCQ17:
Political scientists have adopted several approaches to the study of
...................
Answer:
Politics
MCQ18:
Behaviouralism was developed by American political scientists as an alternative
to the traditional approaches in the ..................
Answer: 1940s
and 1950s
MCQ19:
Behaviorists use more statistical methods, on testing hypothesis than other
political
Answer:
Scientists
MCQ20:
Behaviorism as an approach is an improvement in methodology upon the
traditional approaches and it is a reflection of the rapid growth of
the................
Answer:
discipline
MCQ21: The
advent of World War II brought new approaches to
political...........................
Answer:
Science
MCQ22: System
analysis is an attempt by David Easton, its originator to apply general systems
theories to political
Answer:
science
MCQ23: This
is the most radical approach in political science. The approach focuses on
division of society into classes and how this social stratification determines
social conflict and
Answer:
Social change.
MCQ24: Most
Marxist political scientists insist that class exist in all societies because
of the nature of mode of ...........
Answer:
production.
MCQ25: Many
political scientists believe that the legislative process in Parliament or
Assembly is primarily an institution that structures the conflict of interests
and demands expressed by ................
Answer:
political parties.
MCQ26: No
modern society can exist without a system of laws. The institution of law is
therefore crucial to the social organization of
Answer: human
beings
MCQ27: The
term is one of the most ambiguous and fluid known to man. There is little
agreement as to its meaning and it may be that there is no
Answer: final
answer
MCQ28:
....................can be expressed or conceived as doing things with rules.
In other words, law is a technique of social ordering [W. Twinning and D. Miers
(1979) To Do Things with Rules]
Answer: Law
MCQ29: A law
regulates the behaviour of human beings in everyday activities and in their
personal
Answer:
interrelationship
MCQ30: A law
either written or mere verbal proclamation is mere words unless it is backed by
some form of authority; this authority could be traditional, legalistic and
................
Answer:
Rational legal.
MCQ31:
....stated that politics is the process of making and execution of governmental
decisions or policies
Answer:
Ernest baker
MCQ32:
............a French political philosopher.
Answer: Jean
Bodin
MCQ33: The
advent of brought about a re-think by political scientist
Answer: The Preminilary wars
MCQ34:
..........science is concerned with obtaining accurate knowledge about the
structure and behaviour of the physical universe.
Answer: Pure
MCQ35: A
proposition is said to be .......when it has been checked or tested by
many specialists in the relevant field of study and when they all agree that
other scientists and the general public can believe it to be true.
Answer:
verified
MCQ36:
Knowledge is said to be ......when it is organized into
an intelligible pattern, or structure, with significant relationships
made clear.
Answer:
systematic
MCQ37:
.....science deals with man and it’s environment
Answer:
Political
MCQ38: There
are two sub-disciplines of political
science namely
Answer:
Judicial and legal process
MCQ39: The most visible symbol of a state is its
.....
Answer: Chief
Executive.
MCQ40: ......
politics is how laws are made in terms of the clash of interests
Answer:
Legislative
MCQ41: The
two types of approach under tradition is....
Answer:
Historical and institutional
MCQ42:
.....was developed by American political scientists as an alternative to the
traditional approaches in the 1940s and 1950s.
Answer:
Behaviouralism
MCQ43: System
analysis was originally adapted by ..........
Answer: David
Easton
MCQ44: This
is the most radical approach in political science
Answer: Class
analysis approach
MCQ45: No
modern society can exist without ...
Answer: Laws
MCQ46:
.......can be expressed or conceived as doing things with rules.
Answer: Law
MCQ47: One of
these is apolitical law that can be enjoyed daily
Answer: Right
to life
MCQ48: Every
state/country has its legal system which is made up of both the substantive
and procedural laws and......
Answer:
judicial organizational structure
MCQ49:
Example of legal system is .......
Answer:
Sharia code
MCQ50:
According to whom is Political Science as a discipline before behaviourism was
characterized by six features
Answer:
Truman
PAD251
FBQ1: The
___________ theories focus on the beliefs about what traits or characteristics
tend to go together.
Answer:
Implicit Personality
FBQ2: Self-presentation is also known as
_______________________
Answer: Impression
Management
FBQ3:
___________ monitor their behaviours in relation to what they need and what
they are interested in.
Answer: Low
Self- Monitors
FBQ4: The
tendency to direct attention away from information that has the potential to
change existing attitudes is referred to as _______________________
Answer:
Selective avoidance
FBQ5:
_________ refers to the evaluation of the various aspects of the social world
Answer:
Attitude
FBQ6:
Shortcuts to problem solving that do not always lead to the right answers are
referred to as____________________
Answer:
Heuristics
FBQ7:
_________ described Stereotypes as selective, self-fulfilling and
ethno centric
Answer:
Lippman (1992)
FBQ8:
The advantaged knowledge
we have that
the persuasive message
is targeted to change our attitudes towards certain
issues is referred to as _________________
Answer:
Forewarning
FBQ9: A
pre-judgment usually based on limited knowledge and little contact is referred
to as ____________________
Answer: Prejudice
FBQ10: When
one of the intentions for being aggressive could be to satisfy some needs it is
known as ______________
Answer:
Instrumental aggression
FBQ11:
_______________ involves the Expression of arrogance or disdain by others
Answer: Condescension
FBQ12: There
is an association between the viewing of _________or ______and several forms of
anti-social behaviour that includes sexual relation to violent crimes has been
established.
Answer:
pornographic Films
FBQ13:
__________ refers to the tendency to perceive hostile intentions or motives in
the actions of others when these actions are ambiguous
Answer:
Hostile attributional bias
FBQ14:
Excessive self-love and holding an over inflated or exaggerated view of one’s
own qualities or achievements is
referred to as _______________
Answer:
Narcissism
FBQ15:
__________ is a mild unpleasant smelling pollutant common in the urban areas
that has been associated with aggression
Answer: Ethyl
Mercaplan
FBQ16: The
pre frontal area of the cortex responsible for the metabolism of glucose does
so more____ in murderers
Answer:
Slowly
FBQ17:
_______ theories suggest that aggression comes from external conditions that
arouse the motive to harm or injure others
Answer: Drive
FBQ18:
Learning that takes place through our seeing others being rewarded by
aggressive behaviours is referred to as _________________
Answer:
Vicarious Reinforcement
FBQ19:
____________ is the delivery of aversive consequences in order to reduce
aggression
Answer:
Punishment
FBQ20: In
most cases of aggressive behaviour towards us, _____ seems to be the
appropriate response
Answer:
Revenge
FBQ21: Some
personal traits like ____________ and __________ have been used to explain why
some people are able to forgive more easily than others.
Answer:
Agreeableness
FBQ22: Trying
to understand the feelings, emotions and circumstances that warranted an
offender to harm you is referred to as _________
Answer:
Empathy
FBQ23:
___________focuses on behaviours that are intended to be of
benefit to others
Answer:
Prosocial behaviour
FBQ24: The
presence of others has been found to affect individual’s willingness to help
due to what is referred to as _____________
Answer:
pluralistic ignorance
FBQ25: The
intermediate step between initial attraction and establishing an interpersonal
relationship is referred to as __________________
Answer:
Mutual liking
FBQ26:
Accepting personal responsibility by
any individual will be _____ in
the presence of many bystanders
Answer: less
likely
FBQ27:
The diffusion of responsibility is referred to as
_____________
Answer:
Bystander effect
FBQ28:
_________is the automatic
tendency to imitate the
behaviour of those
we come in
contact with
Answer:
Mimicry
FBQ29:
Pleasant fragrance, such as _______ or
___________ have been found to increase the willingness to help
Answer: Lemon
/ Floral odour
FBQ30: A
situation where an altruistic behaviour
could result in
the individualfeeling bad after perceiving a
person in need and will want to
help just to relief this bad feeling is referred to as _______________
Answer:
Negative – State Relief Model
FBQ31:
Laughter strengthens social bonds and serves as a social ________
softens interpersonal
Answer:
Lubricant
FBQ32:
_______ or __________ exposes individuals to repeated contact and the
possibility of developing mutualattraction
Answer:
Physical distance / proximity
FBQ33: The
need for affiliation, positive affect and Physical proximity all help in
forming ___________________
Answer:
interpersonal relationships
FBQ34:
_______ reflects a person’s emotional state, either positive or negative
feelings or moods.
Answer:
Affect
FBQ35: The
main reason for people in need of affiliation is that affiliation provides them
with the opportunity for _______________
Answer:
social comparison
FBQ36: The
basic motive to seek and maintain interpersonal relationship is referred to as
_________________?
Answer: Need
for Affiliation
FBQ37:
Damage to the Amygdala, hypothalamus
and related areas could
result in _________ aggression
Answer:
defensive
FBQ38: The
view that suggests that an individual is likely to help because the reward of
accomplishing something is expected is referred to as____________ Hypothesis.
Answer:
Empathic joy
FBQ39: The
view that proposes that some prosocial behaviour are motivated mainly by the
desire to help someone in need and by the fact that it feels good to help is
referred to as__________ hypothesis
Answer:
Empathy Altruism
FBQ40:
Implementing the decision to intervene, the _________ engages in a helping act.
Answer:
bystander
FBQ41:
____________ is a way of expressing stored up frustrations or provocations that
has the usual goal of harming the victim
Answer:
Aggression
FBQ42:
Bringing past problems to bear on present issues or persons after dealing with
them refers to as ______________
Answer:
Ruminating
FBQ43:
Efforts made at reducing aggression by both aggressors and victims are
generally referred to as_________________?
Answer:
Cognitive Intervention
FBQ44:
_____________is the delivery of
aversive consequences in
order to reduce
aggression
Answer:
Punishment
FBQ45: The
view that proposes that cues present during aggressive events may become
associated in memory with thoughts and emotions experienced during the event is
referred to as _____________ theory
Answer:
Cognitive Nero-association
FBQ46: The
________ Hypothesis theory claims that
“aggression is always a consequence of frustration
Answer:
Frustration – Aggression
FBQ47: With
regards to living arrangement, behaviour problems among
juvenile delinquents is
associated with __________________
Answer:
Crowding
FBQ48:
__________ and _________ are
likely to go
together for one
who likes taking
risks and looking for excitement
Answer:
Sensation seeking / impulsivity
FBQ49: People
high in hostile attributional bias mostly do not give people the ________ as
they tend to assume that any provocative behaviour by others are intentional.
Answer:
benefit of the doubt
FBQ50: People
who are extremely competitive, always in a hurry and especially
irritable and aggressive exhibit _______ behaviour pattern
Answer: Type
A
MCQ1: Which
of these factors does not help in forming interpersonal relationships?
Answer: Need
for recognition
MCQ2: Which of these views suggests that an
individual is likely to help because the reward of accomplishing something is
expected?
Answer:
Empathic Joy Hypothesis
MCQ3: Which
of these is not one of the basic motivations in helping behaviour?
Answer:
Associated effect of emotions on attraction
MCQ4:
Altruistic people tend not to be self-absorbed and competitive. This simply
means that Altruistic people…………………..
Answer: Are
Low in egocentrism
MCQ5: Which
of these is not one of the basic motivations in helping behaviour?
Answer:
Cognitive cost reward
MCQ6: Which
of these is not one of the reasons why we tend to help?
Answer:
Because of confidence and assertiveness
MCQ7: Empathy
involves ……………..
Answer:
Putting self in other person’s place
MCQ8: Which
of these is not an ingratiation technique?
Answer:
Positive verbal cues
MCQ9: The
functions of attitude includes all of these except:
Answer:
Elevation Function
MCQ10:
Self-enhancement requires the use of some strategies that might include all of
these except………..
Answer:
Exemplification
MCQ11: Which
of these are very powerful in influencing behaviour?
Answer: Group
norms
MCQ12: Which
of these is not an ingratiation technique?
Answer:
Positive verbal cues
MCQ13:
Persuasion is affected by …………………
Answer:
Adoption of a two –sided approach by the communicator
MCQ14: These
theories focus on the detailed processing of the message content by the
recipient….
Answer:
Systematic Processing Theories
MCQ15: Which
of these statements is not correct?
Answer:
primacy effect might weaken because of
decrease attention
MCQ16: Which
of these theories suggests that when we focus on how people behave (actors), we
make attributions?
Answer:
Kelley’s Co-variation model.
MCQ17: Which
of these are more likely to conform to
social norms and adjust to them making room for flexibility?
Answer: High
self-monitors
MCQ18: In
impression management, exemplification is referred to as a case of …………………………..
Answer: case
of presenting self as worthy, moral and saintly
MCQ19: For
Impression Management to Succeed, we need to ……………………
Answer: Take
the role of others
MCQ20: Which
of these theories is of the view that
when people possess certain traits, they are likely to possess others
too?
Answer:
Implicit Personality Theories
MCQ21: Which
of these theories states that '' we see others through the lens of our own
traits, motives and desires”?
Answer:
Cognitive Theory
MCQ22: A
degree of positive or negative feelings toward another is referred to as ----
Answer:
Interpersonal attraction
MCQ23: Some
of the areas in Social Psychology include all of these except:
Answer:
dynamics
MCQ24: Which
of these is not included in the
sequence of processes
that make messages persuasive?
Answer:
Composition of the message
MCQ25:
Shortcuts to problem solving that do not always lead to the right answers are
referred to as …………
Answer:
Heuristics
MCQ26: Which
of these theories focus on the detailed processing of the message content by
the recipient?
Answer:
Systematic Processing Theories
MCQ27: This
theory is of the view that prejudice comes from competition for scarce
resources that results in conflict
Answer:
Realistic Conflict Theory
MCQ28: Which
of these theories focuses on the minimal group effect in developing
Prejudice?
Answer:
Social Identity Theory (SIT).
MCQ29: Stereotypes
which come from the word “Stereos” means ………………..
Answer: Solid
or hard
MCQ30: Which
of these authors described Stereotypes as selective, self-fulfilling and ethno
centric?
Answer:
Lippman (1992)
MCQ31:
Persuasion is affected by …………………
Answer:
Adoption of a two –sided approach by the communicator
MCQ32: Which
of these theories focus on the detailed processing of the message content by
the recipient?
Answer:
Systematic Processing Theories
MCQ33: Some
of the explanations on how attitudes are formed includes;
Answer: All
of the options
MCQ34: The
functions of attitude includes all of these except:
Answer:
Elevation Function
MCQ35: Which
of these is not an ingratiation technique?
Answer:
Positive verbal cues
MCQ36: Which
of these is very powerful in influencing behaviour?
Answer: Group
norms
MCQ37:
Self-enhancement requires the use of some strategies that might include all of
these except………..
Answer:
Exemplification
MCQ38: Which
of these statements is not correct?
Answer:
primacy effect might weaken because of
decrease attention
MCQ39:
The advantaged knowledge
we have that
the persuasive message
is targeted to change our attitudes towards certain
issues is referred to as ……………...
Answer:
Forewarning
MCQ40: A
degree of positive or negative feelings toward another is referred to as ----
Answer:
Interpersonal attraction
MCQ41: First
impressions are usually lasting impressions because……………..
Answer: All
of the options
MCQ42: Which
of these theories states that ''we see others through the lens of our own
traits, motives and desires" ?
Answer:
Cognitive Theory
MCQ43: Which
of these theories is of the view that
when people possess certain traits, they are likely to possess others
too?
Answer:
Implicit Personality Theories
MCQ44: The
choice of what to disclose and what not to disclose is influenced by many
factors like………………..
Answer: All
of the options
MCQ45: Which
of these statements is correct about
conformity?
Answer: All
of the options
MCQ46:
The way
we treat people because
they belong to
certain groups and have
become targets of prejudice is
termed ………………….
Answer:
Discrimination
MCQ47: Which
of these is not a component of prejudice?
Answer:
Exemplification
MCQ48: Which
of these theories states that “the motivation to enhance self-esteem, sense of
security and meet certain personal needs has encouraged and exposed people to
Prejudice”?
Answer:
Authoritarian Personality Theory.
MCQ49:
Strategies for reducing prejudice does not
include;
Answer:
Explanation technique
MCQ50: Which
of these is a strategy that results in a shift in the boundaries between the
individual’s in-group “us” and some out-group “them"?
Answer:
Re-categorization
BFN104
FBQ1:
Elements of Banking provides student with a ------------ understanding of the
subject matter.
Answer:
conceptual
FBQ2: “This
is the process of legally organizing an outfit to create, safe-keep, manage and
transfer money from one person to another, from business to business or in a
nut shell between surplus and deficit spending economic agents/ units”. What
type of business does this statement refer?
Answer:
Banking
FBQ3: Why did
majority of the banks fail in the 1950s ________
Answer: lack
of regulation
FBQ4: At the
epicentre of a nation’s financial system is its ___________
Answer:
Central Bank
FBQ5:
_________ is the difference between loans and advances
Answer: Tenor
FBQ6: What is the full meaning of BOFIA?
Answer: Banks
and Other Financial Institutions Act
FBQ7: When was the Central Bank of Nigeria
established?
Answer: 1959
FBQ8: Who is
the current Governor of the Central Bank of Nigeria?
Answer:
Godwin Emefiele
FBQ9: Which
organisation has acceptance of deposits as its primary function?
Answer:
Commercial banks
FBQ10: What
common name would you call Mortgage bank, Micro finance bank, Development bank
and Community bank?
Answer:
Specialized banks
FBQ11: From
the economic stand point defined money in terms of --------------
Answer:
function
FBQ12: Fixed,
Inventory and _______ are types of Investment
Answer:
Replacement
FBQ13: A bill
is discharged when all the orders it contains have been _______
Answer:
carried out
FBQ14: Money
can be demanded for the following motives: Transaction, Precaution and ----
Answer:
Speculative
FBQ15: Legal
Department is a ________ form of Departmentalization?
Answer:
Functional
FBQ16:
Commercial paper is one of the ___________ of the money market
Answer:
instruments
FBQ17: What
do you call the system that involves exchanging merchandise for merchandise?
Answer:
Barter
FBQ18: Y = C
+ S + I + G + (x-m). Y represents ___________ in the equation
Answer:
National income
FBQ19:
-------------refers to the several of a country’s money supply in order to
measure the money supply in an economy.
Answer: Money
aggregates
FBQ20: The
money market is a market where ---------- funds are bought and sold.
Answer: short
term
FBQ21:
Treasury bills, Treasury certificates, Commercial paper, Call money,
Certificates of deposit, Bankers Unit Fund and Eligible Development Stock. What
are these collectively called?
Answer: Money
market instruments
FBQ22:
---------------is a financial intermediaries licensed by the government to buy
and sell foreign currencies on a small scale.
Answer:
Bureau de change
FBQ23: The
monetary sector of the economy is anchored by the ----------sector
Answer:
banking
FBQ24:
---------- to save measures how much of the additional disposable income is
saved i.e. not consumed
Answer:
Marginal Propensity
FBQ25: A
balance sheet is a financial statement that provides a snap shot of the
__________ position of a business at a particular at point in time, usually the
of a business’s financial year.
Answer:
financial
FBQ26: A
_______ is a bill of exchange drawn on a banker and payable on demand.
Answer:
cheque
FBQ27:
Autonomous Investment and ---------------- investment were identified by
Keynes
Answer:
Induced
FBQ28: Cost
of capital asset Expected rate of return and ----------- are determinants of
Investment
Answer:
Market rate of interest
FBQ29: What
does the acronym NPV represent _________
Answer: Net
Present Value
FBQ30:
_________ refers to the highest rate of return expected from an additional unit
of a capital asset over its cost.
Answer:
Marginal Efficiency of Capital
FBQ31: The
economy of any country is basically driven by the banking system, as it
contributes to ________ development
Answer:
economic
FBQ32:
National Income = Consumption + --------------
Answer:
Investment
FBQ33: What
concept did Bernard Mandeville first introduce?
Answer:
Paradox of Thrift
FBQ34: Cash
flow of a bank involves sources and ______ of funds
Answer: uses
FBQ35: These
are parties in a bill of exchange transaction: Drawer, Drawee, Acceptor,
Endorser and --------------------
Answer: Payee
FBQ36: Bills
can be classified on the basis of time/period namely: Demand and ------
Answer: Time
FBQ37:
------------ is the process of transferring a bill of exchange from one person
to another such that the benefits written on the bill the becomes payable to the
new holder
Answer:
Endorsement
FBQ38:
_________ is a term that is commonly used to describe the way business firms
are managed
Answer:
Corporate governance
FBQ39:
Parties to a cheque include Drawee, Drawer and -------------
Answer: Payee
FBQ40: ------------is
a written order, signed by the drawer (i.e. the customer) that is used by a
drawer to notify the drawee (i.e. the bank) to stop the payment of a cheque, he
had previously issued.
Answer:
Countermand
FBQ41: Types
of Endorsement are Special, Blank and __________
Answer:
Restrictive
FBQ42: Banks
channel scarce resources from surplus economic units to -------- units.
Answer:
deficit
FBQ43: What
are the basic conditions for lending? (a) Character, (b) Capacity-contractual,
(c) Capital, (d) Condition and (e) __________
Answer:
Collateral
FBQ44: It has
been previously held that for a person to be a Bank customer, it is essential
and indispensable that the person should have ________ in the bank
Answer:
opened an account
FBQ45: Two
basic principles actually guide the
design of the organization structure of a bank: Principle of unity of objective
and -------------
Answer:
Principle of efficiency
FBQ46: The
Nigeria banking system could be said to be a mixture of the branch banking system and the ------------ system
Answer: unit
banking
FBQ47: What
body does Chief Executives of all banks in Nigeria and the Governor of the CBN
as Chairman constitute?
Answer:
Bankers Committee
FBQ48: The
three basic types of fund transmission modes used in correspondent banking are
SWIFT, Mail and Telegraphic transfers (cable transfers) and -----------
Answer:
Electronic
FBQ49: What
does this acronym, IBRD stand for?
Answer:
International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
FBQ50: What
Regulation concerns cheques and funds transfer, as per cheque collection and
returns, cash and non-cash items processes through central bank, as well as
fund transfer through feel wire?______
Answer:
Regulation J
MCQ1: What
other name is commercial bank known?
Answer: Acceptance
house
MCQ2: Banking
and banking business is said to be highly
Answer:
regulated
MCQ3: As a
Banker and Lender of Last Resort to banks, the CBN performs the following
functions except
Answer:
Printing of bank notes
MCQ4: Which
is the first merchant bank to be established in Nigeria?
Answer: NAL
Merchant Bank
MCQ5: What is
the basis of Institutional definition of Money?
Answer:
Backed by the force of law
MCQ6: At what
point is the evolution of money?
Answer:
Electronic
MCQ7: What
does Yd represent in this equation: Yd = C + S?
Answer:
Disposable income
MCQ8: What
does this equation Y = C + I, mean?
Answer:
National Income = Consumption + Investment
MCQ9: The
structure of banks could generally be analysed in terms of the following
characteristics, except
Answer:
Initial paid up capital
MCQ10: What
is the full meaning of the acronym, SWIFT?
Answer:
Society for Worldwide Inter-Bank Financial Telecommunications
MCQ11:
Eliminate the option that is not a type of bank lending
Answer:
Foreign exchange loan
MCQ12: The
bank financial statement may contain the following information except
Answer:
Government budget expenses
MCQ13: What
other name is bank known?
Answer:
Acceptance house
MCQ14: Why
did majority of banks of the 1950s fail?
Answer: Lack
of proper regulation and control
MCQ15: When
was the Central Bank of Nigeria established?
Answer: 1959
MCQ16: Which
is the first merchant bank to be established in Nigeria?
Answer: NAL
Merchant Bank
MCQ17: The
following are functions of Mortgage Banks except
Answer:
Granting of overdraft
MCQ18: Which
is not a characteristic of money?
Answer: Indivisibility
MCQ19: What
does Money Aggregate measure?
Answer: Money
supply
MCQ20: What
are the two forms of investment identified by Keynes?
Answer:
Autonomous and Induced
MCQ21: What
is marginal efficiency of investment?
Answer: The
rate of return expected from a given investment on a capital asset after
covering all its costs, except the rate of interest
MCQ22:
Negotiable instruments are often times _________instruments that are acceptable
means of payments in transactions
Answer: near
cash
MCQ23: A
cheque is said to be stale
Answer: when
it is presented after the expiration of the date specified on it.
MCQ24: What
is the concern of REGULATION J?
Answer:
Cheques and funds transfer
MCQ25: In
what transaction is Letter of Credit involved?
Answer:
International trade and commerce
MCQ26: When
was the local branch of the Institution of Bankers established in Nigeria?
Answer: 1963
MCQ27: The
bottom line of the banking business is an efficient payment and
Answer:
intermediary system
MCQ28: Why is
the Central Bank called the apex bank?
Answer: It is
empowered by law to regulate and supervise commercial banks
MCQ29: As a
Banker and Lender of Last Resort to banks, the CBN performs the following
functions except
Answer:
Printing of bank notes
MCQ30: What
other name is Merchant Bank called?
Answer:
Wholesale bank
MCQ31: Bank
is an outfit legally registered to accept funds and other valuables for
--------
Answer: safe
keeping
MCQ32: What
year was seen as an era for free banking?
Answer: 1952
MCQ33: Prior
to the establishment of the Central bank of Nigeria in 1959 there was a
Answer: West
African Currency Board
MCQ34: Who is
charged with the responsibility of administering the Banks and Other Financial
Institutions Act (BOFIA) 1991?
Answer:
Central Bank of Nigeria
MCQ35: What
is the designation of the Chief Executive Officer of the Central Bank of
Nigeria?
Answer:
Governor
MCQ36:
Accepting deposit is one of the primary functions of which organisation?
Answer:
Commercial banks
MCQ37: What
determines the difference between loans and advances?
Answer: Tenor
MCQ38:
Merchant banks are usually defined in terms of their --------------
Answer:
functions
MCQ39: The
functions of these specialized banking institutions vary according to their
--------------
Answer: types
MCQ40: The
ownership structure of the community banks is shared among how many groups?
Answer: three
MCQ41: Which
is not a specialized bank?
Answer:
Commercial bank
MCQ42: From
this Economics stand point, for money to be generally acceptable, it must
backed up by the ----------.
Answer:
institutional force of law
MCQ43: Which
other way can you express money as a measure of value?
Answer: Units
of accounts
Answer:
Financial instruments
MCQ45:
Savings is defined as the difference between disposable income and--------
Answer:
consumption
MCQ46: What
other name is Merchant Bank called?
Answer:
Wholesale bank
MCQ47: Which
one is not a type of investment?
Answer:
Annual investment
MCQ48: The
Board of Directors of a bank is not involved in --------------
Answer: The
day-to-day running of the bank
MCQ49: What
type of instrument is a cheque?
Answer:
Negotiable
MCQ50: Which
is not a type of bank lending?
Answer:
Composite
BFN203
FBQ1: Another
way to _______ is the market approach
Answer: hedge
FBQ2:
Investment requires______ which implies that funds will have to be expended by
the person who is investing.
Answer:
financial commitments
FBQ3:
Arbitrage refers to the practices of taking advantage of a price __________
between two or more financial market
Answer:
Difference
FBQ4: Lower
risk of investment lowers the risk of an _________significantly
Answer:
investment
FBQ5: Another
way to invest wisely in________ involves the use of speculation
Answer:
financial market
FBQ6: In
speculation, dealer in _________ market pay little attention
Answer:
Financial
FBQ7: The
real estate market are well structured as comparable to ________ market
Answer:
Financial
FBQ8: Equity
capital refers to the ______ contribution
Answer:
owners
FBQ9: Real
estate __________ can be risky in nature, as a form of investment
Answer:
Investment
FBQ10:
Derivative refers to contract that ___________ its value forms the performance
of an underlying entity
Answer:
Originates
FBQ11:
Co-operative society as an aggregation of co-operators who_______ their funds
together through regular saving
Answer:
pooled
FBQ12:
_________ refers to one part of one’s assets, usually deposits in savings
account
Answer:
savings
FBQ13:
Cash flow involves generating regular income from ______ assets
Answer: Investment
FBQ14:
_________can also be done with thrifts and credit society or a cooperative
society
Answer:
Saving
FBQ15:
Capital gains are generated from an appreciation on the value of _________
assets
Answer:
Investment
FBQ16: In
_________________securities are traded as short term instrument
Answer: money
market
FBQ17: There
is a remarked difference between _____ gains investing and speculation
Answer:
Capital
FBQ18:
________ is another means of ensuring investment in real estate with some sort of
raising equity financing in smaller amount
Answer: real
estate crowding fund
FBQ19: Money
market is the financial market in which________ are traded with maturity of up
to one year
Answer:
financial instrument
FBQ20:
Maturities exceed for _______ year
Answer: one
year
FBQ21: Work
of ______is types under intellectual property
Answer: Art
FBQ22: When
maturities exceed_______ years the market is considered as a Capital market
Answer: Five
FBQ23:
________ is the exclusive right of the copy right holder.
Answer: fair
use
FBQ24: ______
refers to some payment that are made by one company to another company in
exchange for the right to use intellectual property
Answer:
Royalties
FBQ25:
_______separating system is intellectual property that qualifies for royalty
Answer:
Windows
FBQ26: T-bill
normal has a maturity date of some month but less than _____ year
Answer: One
FBQ27:
Marketable securities refers to money market_______ instrument
Answer:
Financial
FBQ28:
________portfolio is a situation where
investor who is willing to take a given amount of risk can invest more
aggressively with a property
Answer:
non-diversified
FBQ29:
Hedging is the practice of taking a_______ in one market of offset and balance
against the risk adopted by assuming a position in a contrary market.
Answer:
Position
FBQ30:
______is missing one of the legs of the trade and subsequently having to trade
it soon after at a worse price
Answer:
execution risk
FBQ31: It is
advisable to use a ______ investment when making a large investment,
Answer: Hedge
FBQ32: Under
the current Nigerian law, taxation is enforced by the ______ tiers of
government
Answer: Three
FBQ33:
Hedging investor is an _____which is undertaking in order to reduce the risk if
adverse price movement in a financial asset
Answer:
Investment
FBQ34: It is
advisable to engage services of ______ since they are professionals in such
market
Answer:
brokerage firms
FBQ35: The
term ________ is fraught with many definitions but such expositions recognize
the fact that investment requirements financial commitments which implies that
funds will have to be expended by the person who is investing
Answer:
investment
MCQ1: The
individual or entity who subscribe to insurance policy against rises is called
____________
Answer:
Policy holder
MCQ2:
Betaneutral approach is one way to
Answer: Hedge
MCQ3:
Investment is regarded as saving embarked upon as a result of
Answer:
Debuted consumption
MCQ4:
Investment is done with the intention of generating
Answer:
Higher Return
MCQ5: Hedging
is strategy that can be used to take advantages of wise
Answer:
investment
MCQ6:
Consumer can be used in other way such as
Answer:
Hedging
MCQ7: Missing
one of the legs of the trade and subsequently having to trade it soon after at
a wise price is called
Answer:
Execution risk
MCQ8:
Brokerage is another word for
Answer:
Arbitrageur
MCQ9:
Crowding fund in very much practice in U.S
Answer: Real
Estate
MCQ10: The
payment to the holder of a right or owner of an asset for the using the property.
Answer:
Royalties
MCQ11:
Diversification is the sort of thing that suffers from what is called
Answer:
Double Dip
MCQ12:
Portfolio optimisation is achieved by placing a larger
percentage of high return investment in a____
Answer:
Diversified portfolio
MCQ13: Beta
is the historical correlation between a stock and a/an
Answer: Index
MCQ14: A
hedge can be constructed from many types of
Answer:
Financial instruments
MCQ15: A
document which sets broad parameters for taxation and ancillary matters
connected with taxation is called
Answer: The
National Tax Policy
MCQ16: Under
the current Nigerian law, taxation is enforced by the which tier of government
(a) one (b) five (c) six (d) three
Answer: Three
MCQ17: The
individual or entity who subscribe to insurance policy against rises is the
______ or _______
Answer:
Insured or policy holder
MCQ18:
Subrogation is the legal, principles of
Answer:
Insurance
MCQ19:
Missing one of the legs of the trade and subsequently having to trade it soon
after at a worse price is called
Answer:
Execution Risk
MCQ20: When
you are making a large investment, it is advisable to use
Answer: Hedge
MCQ21: A
monetary charge imposed by the government on person, entities transaction and
properties to yield revenue is called
Answer: Tax
MCQ22: The
practice of taking a position in one market of offset and balance against the
risk adopted by assuming a position in a contrary or opposing market or
investment marketer
Answer: Hedging
MCQ23: In
respect of hedging as stock price a common hedging technique used in the
financial market for equity technique
Answer:
Long/Short
MCQ24: The
historical correlation between a stock and an index is called
Answer: Beta
MCQ25: Charge
imposed by the government on person, entities transaction and properties to
yield revenue is known as
Answer:
Monetary
MCQ26: The
document which sets broad parameters for taxation and ancillary matters
connected with taxation is known as
Answer: The
national tax policy
MCQ27: What
are professionals in investment market called?
Answer:
Brokerage Firms
MCQ28: The
reduction in volatility of a financial assets price movements is known as
Answer:
Diversification
MCQ29:
Property regarded as the creations of the intellect for which a monopoly is
granted to the designated owner by law.
Answer:
Intellectual
MCQ30: A unit
of capital ownership in a firm in terms of equity investment by the shareholder
Answer: The
ordinary share
MCQ31: Which
of the methods can be useful toward marking return on your fund?
Answer:
Speculation
MCQ32: Which
of the following method is used economical by reserving money for future use?
Answer:
Saving
MCQ33: What
can be used to avoid paying taxes?
Answer:
Speculation
MCQ34: Which
of the following usually buy undervalued securities?
Answer:
Risker investor
MCQ35: Which
of the following is the legal principles of insurance.
Answer:
Subrogation
BFN209
FBQ1: Finance
plays a very important role in any ----------- activities
Answer: Business
FBQ2: A
business is a concern, an enterprise, or organization set up by an individual
or group of individuals for the purpose of making -------- from operations of
the concern.
Answer:
Profit
FBQ3: Finance
may be defined as the provision of money at the time it is-----------
Answer:
Required
FBQ4: The
--------- are expected to be arranged in such a way that fund (money) is always
available to make necessary payments as they arise.
Answer:
Inflows
FBQ5:
Oyekanmi (2003) defined finance “as money affairs or money -------- ”
Answer:
Matters
FBQ6:
According to Hornby (2001), finance is the money need or needed to--------- an
activity, project, programme etc. and or the management ofmoney.
Answer:
Support
FBQ7:
-------- evolved from economics as its branch in the early part of the 20th
century
Answer:
Finance
FBQ8: Money
is the common ---------- for the full range of activities performed in the
business.
Answer:
Denominator
FBQ9:
----------- is the medium of exchange in business
Answer: Money
FBQ10: A
------- generates whatever capital it needs and utilizes it in activities which
generate returns on invested capital
Answer: Firm
FBQ11:
Internal finance is also known to as ------- fund/finance
Answer:
Equity
FBQ12:
External finance is also known to as ------- fund/finance
Answer:
Borrowed
FBQ13: The
equity fund/finance is solely owned by ------------------
Answer:
Shareholders
FBQ14: Buyers
of shares are called ------------------------
Answer:
Shareholders
FBQ15:
Shareholders invest their money in the shares of a company in theexpectation of
a return on their invested ----------- .
Answer:
Capital
FBQ16: The
return for shareholders consists of ----------- and capital gain.
Answer:
Dividend
FBQ17: In a
financial system, the Household are also referred to as ____
Answer:
Consumers.
FBQ18:
----------- represent ownership rights of their holders
Answer:
Shares
FBQ19:
Shareholders can be of two types that is, preference and ------------
Answer:
Ordinary
FBQ20: There
are two kinds of markets, namely real assets and ---------
Answer:
Financial
FBQ21:
----------- markets are for physical or tangible assets such as plant,
machinerywheat, office, gold, buildings etc.
Answer: Real
FBQ22:
Intangible ------------ include copyrights, patent, technical know-how.
Answer:
Assets
FBQ23:
Financial market trades on ------------
assets
Answer:
Financial
FBQ24:
---------- shareholders receive dividend at a fixed rate and they enjoy
apriority over ordinary shareholders.
Answer:
Preference
FBQ25: A
----------- can also obtain equity funds by retaining earnings available
forshareholders.
Answer:
company
FBQ26:
----------- shareholders they enjoy a priority over ordinary shareholders.
Answer:
Preference
FBQ27: A
------------ is a certificate stating the amount of money lent by a holder to
the company.
Answer: Bond
FBQ28: A
business organization performs ---------- functions simultaneously
andcontinuously in the normal course of its activities.
Answer:
Finance
FBQ29:
---------- decisions involve capital expenditures which are referred to
ascapital budgeting decision.
Answer:
Investment
FBQ30:
Capital structure is the mix of equity and ------------
Answer: Debt
FBQ31: The
capital structure is said to be optimum when the market value of shares is --------------.
Answer:
Maximized
FBQ32: The
----------- of profits distributed as dividend is called the dividend-payout
ratio.
Answer:
Proportion
FBQ33: The
---------- ratio is the retained portion of profits.
Answer:
Retention
FBQ34: The --------- policy is determined by its
impact on the shareholder’s value.
Answer:
Dividend
FBQ35:
Liquidity and ------------ affect investment in current assets in business
organizations.
Answer:
Profitability
FBQ36:
------------------- of an enterprise is affected by the level of management of
current asset.
Answer:
Liquidity
FBQ37: Risk
of illiquidity (lack of liquidity), in extreme situations, can lead to a
business --------------
Answer:
Insolvency
FBQ38:
-------------- assets if properly/efficiently managed would safeguard the
business organization against risk of illiquidity.
Answer:
Current
FBQ39:
------------ risks are risks that some accident may destroy or spoil some
physical goods created by the work financed.
Answer:
Physical
FBQ40:
------------ risks are those risks that arise from the fact that the producer’s
skill or that of the subordinates may not be up to the expected level for the
plan,hence it may fall short of achieving the intention
Answer:
Technical
FBQ41: The
simplest form of finance is where the whole of finance required by aparticular
enterprise is provided by an ------------------.
Answer:
Entrepreneur
FBQ42:
Partnership and Limited Liability Company are two main ----------- forms under
which people join together on equal terms to provide the finance needed for an
enterprise, sharing fully in both risks and profits.
Answer:
Institutional
FBQ43:
------------------------ and Limited Liability Company are two main
institutional forms under which people join together on equal terms to provide
the finance needed for an enterprise, sharing fully in both risks and profits.
Answer:
Partnership
FBQ44: The
------------------ oversees or manages the enterprise’s liquid assets,
liabilities, payroll and cashier activities, credits and collections,
forecasting, capital budgeting and investment and financing.
Answer:
Treasurer
FBQ45: The
Treasurer is an active participant in long-range financial -------------
Answer:
Planning
FBQ46: In
---------- economy of a country, prices
of goods and services aredetermined by the forces of demand and supply.
Answer:
market
FBQ47:
----------- mechanism (system) is a vital organ of a market economy, showing
the goods and services required in the community.
Answer: Price
FBQ48: The ----------
price is where demand and supply match.
Answer:
Equilibrium
FBQ49:
------- is the expected variability of the income flow.
Answer: Risk
FBQ50:
Business firms are frequently profit oriented with maximization of profitas the
proper -------------
Answer:
Objective
MCQ1:
------------------- defined finance “as money affairs or money matters”.
Answer:
Oyekanmi (2003)
MCQ2:
--------------- is an
example of
external finance
Answer: Loan
MCQ3: The
return to shareholders consists of …………. and capital gain
Answer:
dividend
MCQ4: Money
is the common denominator for the full range of activities performed in the
business.
Answer: true
MCQ5:
According to Anao (1993), which one of the following is an example of money or
near-money?
Answer:
Certificate of deposits
MCQ6: Which
of the following is not a product of financial market?
Answer:
Patent
MCQ7: Finance
evolved from accounting
Answer: false
MCQ8:
Undistributed profits is also known as ----------------
Answer:
Retained earnings
MCQ9: The
capital structure of a firm could be defined as -------------
Answer: The
mix of equity and debt
MCQ10:
------------------ are risks of losses because of unforeseen intervention by
governments.
Answer:
Political risks
MCQ11:
Economic risks are risks that arise from the fact that the producer’s skill or
that of the subordinates may not be up to the expected level for the plan
Answer: false
MCQ12:
Shareholders can be of two types, namely preference and --------------------
Answer:
Ordinary
MCQ13:
Financial decisions is concerned with the acquisition and not disposal of
assets through commitment or recommitment of funds on a continuous basis.
Answer: False
MCQ14:
Finance manager's duties include
Answer:
Selecting and evaluating projects
MCQ15:
Product pricing/costing policy are jointly determined by the --------------
Answer:
marketing/sales department and financial planning staff.
MCQ16: The
Treasurer is an active participant in long-range financial planning.
Answer: True
MCQ17: The
accounting and control function for the finance manager include
Answer: Tax
matters
MCQ18: Price
mechanism is a vital organ of a ---------------, showing the goods and services
required in the community.
Answer:
market economy
MCQ19: Which
one is not a limitation of profit maximization according to Pandey (2005)?
Answer: It is
certain
MCQ20: Profit
maximization objective is not always clear to stakeholders of the firm.
Answer: True
MCQ21: The
account manager is responsible for performing finance functions in a firm
Answer: false
MCQ22: Which
of the following was not always a major events in the life the firm for raising
funds
Answer:
Annual general meeting
MCQ23: Which
one of the following is the regulator of the capital market in Nigeria
Answer: The
Nigerian Securities and ExchangeCommission
MCQ24:
-------------------- is the meeting point for investors and firms
Answer:
Capital market
MCQ25:
----------- is an example of fixed asset
Answer:
furniture and fittings
MCQ26:
--------------------- is a book in which receipts and payment of money are
recorded
Answer: Cash
book
MCQ27: Which
one is not an example of current liability?
Answer: Trade
debtors
MCQ28: Profit
after tax is --------------- item
Answer: An
income statement
MCQ29: The
balance sheet is more important than other financial statements to report the
activities and performance of the firm
Answer: false
MCQ30: Profit
planning is not related to considering -----------------
Answer:
Depreciation
MCQ32: Cash
flow element include ----------------
Answer:
Investing Activities
MCQ33:
--------------- refers to the management of current assets and liabilities
Answer:
Working capital management
MCQ34: The
aim of cash management is not to maintain adequate control over cash position
to be able to keep the enterprise sufficiently liquid and to use excess cash in
some profitable way.
Answer: False
MCQ35:
Components of short-term asset are the following except
Answer:
Creditors
MCQ36:
Business need to hold cash to achieve the ------------- motive
Answer:
speculative
MCQ37: A
--------------- have the legal right to enter into a contract, sue and be sued
in its name.
Answer:
limited liability company
MCQ38:
Operators of companies are by law to register with ---------------
Answer:
Corporate Affairs Commission
MCQ39: The
promoters of a limited liability company must apply for registration with ……..
Answer:
Memorandum and Articles of Association
MCQ40:
Long-term sources of funds represent
Answer:
Debenture
MCQ41:
Debenture stocks are normally issued under a firm’s seal
Answer: True
MCQ42:
--------------------- are the preference shares that allow for dividend payment
to be deferred if a firm does not make adequate profit to pay such dividend
Answer: Cumulative
preference shares
MCQ43: Which
one is not an example of lease financing?
Answer:
Debenture lease
MCQ44:
---------------- convey upon the holders the right to convert these shares into
equity shares in accordance with the terms of issues.
Answer: Convertible
preference shares
MCQ45:
Budgeting helps to identify the ----------- desired
Answer:
Output
MCQ46:
Planning helps to identify the ---------- required.
Answer:
Inputs
MCQ47: A
financial plan is a budget that interprets some elements of a plan in financial
terms.
Answer: False
MCQ48:
------------------------ is the financing decisions and practices of individual
households, businesses and non-business
Answer: micro
finance
MCQ49:
Debenture stocks is also known as --------------
Answer: Corporate
bonds
MCQ50:
----------- is a creditor to the firm.
Answer: A
debenture stock holder
MCQ31: An
enterprise’s long-term projected plan should reflect its long-term pricing
policy.
Answer: True
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